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One Flesh - a biological perspective

How exactly do a husband and wife “become one flesh”?
Asked and answered, you rejected the simple scripturally supported answer in favor of an imagined answer.

Scriptural: One flesh is sexual union.
Imagined: A child is what makes one flesh.

Why are you asking this question when it's not only been discussed at length, but when you've already rejected the rational explanation?
 
Asked and answered, you rejected the simple scripturally supported answer in favor of an imagined answer.

Scriptural: One flesh is sexual union.
Imagined: A child is what makes one flesh.

Why are you asking this question when it's not only been discussed at length, but when you've already rejected the rational explanation?

We are allowed to ask even if we never find out.
 
Then how solid is the idea? If scripture doesn’t support it is it supportable?

If we are saying One Flesh then we need to people becoming One in Flesh other than having a baby.
Kissing or Sex is not becoming One Flesh, Marriage will not make you One Flesh so what makes us One Flesh?

Are we talking figuratively? Because who knows other then a Baby. I see everyone as guessing not showing facts.
 

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We are allowed to ask even if we never find out.
Of course you can ask. But why are you asking again when it’s been discussed and you didn’t like the answer? Are you asking for it to be rehashed? Clarified? For the discussion to be deeper?
 
If we are saying One Flesh then we need to people becoming One in Flesh other than having a baby.
Kissing or Sex is not becoming One Flesh, Marriage will not make you One Flesh so what makes us One Flesh?

Are we talking figuratively? Because who knows other then a Baby. I see everyone as guessing not showing facts.
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I am totally NOT bothered by "one flesh" being sexual contact so lets not go thru this again.... I already stated my "unfounded" opinion and got outvoted. It's not even a secondary issue to divide over.
 

Does a Man Need to Leave His Parents to Cling to His Wife?​

Homonyms: Two Meanings of ʿ-z-b​

In commenting on Exodus 23:5, medieval Jewish exegetes such as Rashi, Rashbam, and Ibn Ezra point to the distinctly different sense of the verbs formed from the root ʿ-z-b in these verses. Only in the twentieth century, however, did scholars associate these meanings with a second root, which lexicons list as ʿ-z-b II, with cognates in Akkadian, Epigraphic South Arabic, Geʿez, and Ugaritic.[5] On the basis of these cognates, the posited meanings of ʿ-z-b II are “to help, fix, make whole, set right.”

The Geʿez cognate, ʿazzaba, “to assist, uphold, help,” is particularly relevant to Genesis 2:24. Based on this understanding of ʿ-z-b, our verse can be translated: “Therefore a man strengthens/supports/helps his father and his mother and clings to his woman/wife and they become one flesh.”
Can you please explain how this affects the discussion, in your own words? It's a bit obscure.
 
Sex is not becoming One Flesh, Marriage will not make you One Flesh
Why do you say this? What are your reasons for either statement? You seem to be just rejecting the obvious and saying it's obviously not true, so you can propose whatever idea you like.
 
Sex is not becoming One Flesh,
Yes it is, see below.
Because who knows other then a Baby.
Genesis 25:21:
And Isaac intreated the LORD for his wife, because she was barren: and the LORD was intreated of him, and Rebekah his wife conceived.

They obviously are one flesh, she is his WIFE, they had SEX on more than one occasion, how else would find out that your WIFE was barren??

Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Genesis 17:15 And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be.
YaHWeH refers to Sarah as Abraham's wife and they have been TRYING FOR YEARS to have children but she was...

Genesis 16:1 Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.
Genesis 16:2 And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai.

She is his wife ONE FLESH!! Like I said above, how else would find out that your WIFE was barren??

Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

There are many moor examples of MARRIED, ONE FLESH, BARREN women in the Bible.

I would like to point out that according to your definition of one flesh these women are not ONE FLESH with there husbands until they have children.

I know this is a stretch, but technically there is no promise of having children in Genesis 2:24 but, it does say you will be ONE FLESH after you cleave unto your WIFE.
 
Keying off something @FollowingHim said a few pages back... Cutting edge medical and agronomic science is making leaps and gains in understanding the bacteria biome that exists in and on us. We have discovered that there are more bacteria and viral cells in our bodies than human cells. Our nature is of a human-bacteria hybrid. This is normal to God's creation, there are many species which nutritionally depend on their bacteria colonies to survive and we're just discovering how big an affect on growth and health these things have. Our biome is not only part of who we are, it is inheritable and spreadable.

So when man and woman engage in various forms of physical contact, sharing and cross populating one anothers biomes their phytotypes merge becoming a new One Flesh.
 
Keying off something @FollowingHim said a few pages back... Cutting edge medical and agronomic science is making leaps and gains in understanding the bacteria biome that exists in and on us. We have discovered that there are more bacteria and viral cells in our bodies than human cells. Our nature is of a human-bacteria hybrid. This is normal to God's creation, there are many species which nutritionally depend on their bacteria colonies to survive and we're just discovering how big an affect on growth and health these things have. Our biome is not only part of who we are, it is inheritable and spreadable.

So when man and woman engage in various forms of physical contact, sharing and cross populating one anothers biomes their phytotypes merge becoming a new One Flesh.
This is entirely feasible and would not run contrary to scripture. Although it has no explicit scriptural proof, at least it is logically consistent with God’s word.
 
Why do you say this? What are your reasons for either statement? You seem to be just rejecting the obvious and saying it's obviously not true, so you can propose whatever idea you like.

No, we can clearly see marriage did not morph me into any of my wives or we are not talking real coming together of one flesh.

Otherwise you are speaking metaphorically (One Flesh) kind of like One in The Universe.
 
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Yes it is, see below.

Genesis 25:21:
And Isaac intreated the LORD for his wife, because she was barren: and the LORD was intreated of him, and Rebekah his wife conceived.

They obviously are one flesh, she is his WIFE, they had SEX on more than one occasion, how else would find out that your WIFE was barren??

Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Genesis 17:15 And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be.
YaHWeH refers to Sarah as Abraham's wife and they have been TRYING FOR YEARS to have children but she was...

Genesis 16:1 Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.
Genesis 16:2 And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai.

She is his wife ONE FLESH!! Like I said above, how else would find out that your WIFE was barren??

Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

There are many moor examples of MARRIED, ONE FLESH, BARREN women in the Bible.

I would like to point out that according to your definition of one flesh these women are not ONE FLESH with there husbands until they have children.

I know this is a stretch, but technically there is no promise of having children in Genesis 2:24 but, it does say you will be ONE FLESH after you cleave unto your WIFE.

then you are speaking metaphorically (One Flesh) kind of like One in The Universe.
 

https://hermeneutics.stackexchange....24-how-do-a-husband-and-wife-become-one-flesh

Expanded Context​

This verse cannot be taken in isolation from those immediately around it. So let me quote Gen 2:20b-25 (KJV; slightly reformatted and some Hebrew words noted):

but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him. 21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh [בָּשָׂר] instead thereof; 22 And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. 23 And Adam said,
This [זֹאת] is now [פַּ֫עַם] bone of my bones, and flesh [בָּשָׂר] of my flesh [בָּשָׂר]: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh [בָּשָׂר].
25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.
First, the previous three uses of the masculine noun בָּשָׂר (bāśār, "flesh") are quite clear to be referring to the physical skin/meaty part of the human body, contrasting explicitly with the bone in v.23. This meaning then should be expected for the term in v.24 because of the use in the immediate context.

Second, Adam's statement is key to the meaning. He refers to this (זֹאת; feminine form of זֶה, "this [one]") female of his own kind (contrasted with the v.19-20 creatures) as now (פַּ֫עַם) bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh. The term פַּ֫עַם often has the idea of an occurrence of something, and thus the word used when speaking of repetitive occurrences, or X number of "times" of something, including a "once" time idea (e.g., Gen 18:32, Jud 16:28).1 Hence why the translation of "now" with respect to timing, but the word has the definite article on it in the text (הַפַּ֗עַם). The paring of the article with this word indicating time makes it most likely demonstrative,2 and v.23a can be rephrased like so:

This [female of my kind] is this [one] time bone of my bone and flesh of my flesh3
What is Adam making this statement in reference to? It was in response to God having "brought her unto" him (v.22). Thus, while Eve was indeed literally taken from Adam's side (v.21), and so literally came from his flesh and bones, it is at the presentation of her to him by God as the companion "meet for him" (v.20b), or "comparable to him" (NKJV), that Adam acknowledges as the timing of when "this once" she (as an individual herself) is considered bone and flesh of his. So Adam is utilizing the literal facts of her creation as a foundation for making a figurative reference about their relationship now as two individuals, doing so as an acknowledgment of the unity of the companionship he was to have with her. They would function together as companions, but together as if they were one flesh, one being.

Third, v.24 is then an affirmation made that this uniting of a man and a woman in companionship together was to function the same for all generations of mankind, the two were to be as if they were one flesh, one being.

It is interesting that from the context it is difficult to determine for sure if v.24 is intended to convey:

  1. A continuation of Adam's statement, whereby as head of the race he is making a statement about how this marital companionship shall be construed later.
  2. A direct verbal response from God to Adam's statement, showing God's greater intent behind His statement about the need for a man to have a companion (v.18) that started the process of Eve's creation.
  3. A reflective comment of the author of Genesis (Moses, and by my view of how Scripture came about in inspiration, God through Moses).
Whatever the basis for the statement, Adam's reflection is used as the basis for the institution of marital companionship, the leaving of the ones who beget (the father and mother), and the uniting of the two that are intended to function as one on earth. The unity was in part to beget more people themselves (Gen 1:27-28a) and in part to achieve the dominion granted mankind over the earth and its creatures (Gen 1:26, 28b; one person could not properly oversee all the earth and its creatures alone), both of which are why the creatures of v.19-20 were unsuitable.

This is likely the intent of Moses for the phrasing of v.24, and God's point through Moses (and possibly Adam's point, if it is a continuation of his speech). So how they become one flesh is by their union as companions meet for each other, a union that happens once as the man moves from the parent's familial authority to become his own family authority in union with that one woman who joins him at that time to do that with—i.e., marriage, including the physical (sexual) union intended to go with that. God's approval is on that union, whatever the cultural accouterments, assuming such a union is in fact a commitment of such companionship, and not merely a liaison of the flesh.4

לְבָשָׂ֥ר ("flesh")​

Genesis 2:24 states that the man and women shall be/become one flesh (לְבָשָׂ֥ר). The root word בָּשָׂר (basar) is used quite often in the Old Testament (270 times). It is usually translated as flesh, but occasionally body.

The key to understanding the word here is to notice that it is also used in Genesis 2:21 and 2:23:

So the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon the man, and while he slept took one of his ribs and closed up its place with flesh (בָּשָׂ֖ר). And the rib that the LORD God had taken from the man he made into a woman and brought her to the man. Then the man said, “This at last is bone of my bones and flesh (וּבָשָׂ֖ר) of my flesh (מִבְּשָׂרִ֑י); she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.” (Gen 2:21-23, ESV)
The author of Genesis is making an analogy. The flesh (literally a rib) that was taken from Adam to create Eve is metaphorically "returned" to create a whole. Adam is missing apart of himself. He is literally and metaphorically incomplete without Eve. Likewise, a man is incomplete without a woman. The author is saying that man needs to be united with woman.
 
then you are speaking metaphorically (One Flesh) kind of like One in The Universe.
You know, I might not be as smart as some individuals on this forum, as a matter of fact I might even be as dumb as a box of rocks, but you seem to be making this more complicated than what it really is.

My above references are literal, those men literally had sex with a Barren wife and literally became one flesh without producing any offspring.

Brothers, help me out, am I missing something???
 

https://hermeneutics.stackexchange....24-how-do-a-husband-and-wife-become-one-flesh

Expanded Context​

This verse cannot be taken in isolation from those immediately around it. So let me quote Gen 2:20b-25 (KJV; slightly reformatted and some Hebrew words noted):


First, the previous three uses of the masculine noun בָּשָׂר (bāśār, "flesh") are quite clear to be referring to the physical skin/meaty part of the human body, contrasting explicitly with the bone in v.23. This meaning then should be expected for the term in v.24 because of the use in the immediate context.

Second, Adam's statement is key to the meaning. He refers to this (זֹאת; feminine form of זֶה, "this [one]") female of his own kind (contrasted with the v.19-20 creatures) as now (פַּ֫עַם) bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh. The term פַּ֫עַם often has the idea of an occurrence of something, and thus the word used when speaking of repetitive occurrences, or X number of "times" of something, including a "once" time idea (e.g., Gen 18:32, Jud 16:28).1 Hence why the translation of "now" with respect to timing, but the word has the definite article on it in the text (הַפַּ֗עַם). The paring of the article with this word indicating time makes it most likely demonstrative,2 and v.23a can be rephrased like so:


What is Adam making this statement in reference to? It was in response to God having "brought her unto" him (v.22). Thus, while Eve was indeed literally taken from Adam's side (v.21), and so literally came from his flesh and bones, it is at the presentation of her to him by God as the companion "meet for him" (v.20b), or "comparable to him" (NKJV), that Adam acknowledges as the timing of when "this once" she (as an individual herself) is considered bone and flesh of his. So Adam is utilizing the literal facts of her creation as a foundation for making a figurative reference about their relationship now as two individuals, doing so as an acknowledgment of the unity of the companionship he was to have with her. They would function together as companions, but together as if they were one flesh, one being.

Third, v.24 is then an affirmation made that this uniting of a man and a woman in companionship together was to function the same for all generations of mankind, the two were to be as if they were one flesh, one being.

It is interesting that from the context it is difficult to determine for sure if v.24 is intended to convey:

  1. A continuation of Adam's statement, whereby as head of the race he is making a statement about how this marital companionship shall be construed later.
  2. A direct verbal response from God to Adam's statement, showing God's greater intent behind His statement about the need for a man to have a companion (v.18) that started the process of Eve's creation.
  3. A reflective comment of the author of Genesis (Moses, and by my view of how Scripture came about in inspiration, God through Moses).
Whatever the basis for the statement, Adam's reflection is used as the basis for the institution of marital companionship, the leaving of the ones who beget (the father and mother), and the uniting of the two that are intended to function as one on earth. The unity was in part to beget more people themselves (Gen 1:27-28a) and in part to achieve the dominion granted mankind over the earth and its creatures (Gen 1:26, 28b; one person could not properly oversee all the earth and its creatures alone), both of which are why the creatures of v.19-20 were unsuitable.

This is likely the intent of Moses for the phrasing of v.24, and God's point through Moses (and possibly Adam's point, if it is a continuation of his speech). So how they become one flesh is by their union as companions meet for each other, a union that happens once as the man moves from the parent's familial authority to become his own family authority in union with that one woman who joins him at that time to do that with—i.e., marriage, including the physical (sexual) union intended to go with that. God's approval is on that union, whatever the cultural accouterments, assuming such a union is in fact a commitment of such companionship, and not merely a liaison of the flesh.4

לְבָשָׂ֥ר ("flesh")​

Genesis 2:24 states that the man and women shall be/become one flesh (לְבָשָׂ֥ר). The root word בָּשָׂר (basar) is used quite often in the Old Testament (270 times). It is usually translated as flesh, but occasionally body.

The key to understanding the word here is to notice that it is also used in Genesis 2:21 and 2:23:


The author of Genesis is making an analogy. The flesh (literally a rib) that was taken from Adam to create Eve is metaphorically "returned" to create a whole. Adam is missing apart of himself. He is literally and metaphorically incomplete without Eve. Likewise, a man is incomplete without a woman. The author is saying that man needs to be united with woman.
I did not ask for an even bigger quote. I asked what you think it means for this discussion, described in your own words.
 
I did not ask for an even bigger quote. I asked what you think it means for this discussion, described in your own words.

Why do you say this? What are your reasons for either statement? You seem to be just rejecting the obvious and saying it's obviously not true, so you can propose whatever idea you like.
No, we can clearly see marriage did not morph me into any of my wives or we are not talking real coming together of one flesh.

Otherwise you are speaking metaphorically (One Flesh) kind of like One in The Universe.


As the last post it seem to be a physical and a metaphorically 1 Flesh, so Adam was 1 Flesh and was made Two and than together again making ! Flesh. So when we get married/sex we are Becoming a metaphorically 1 Flesh as our Flesh is not joining each other.

But we all need to stop and be clear none of us know for sure and I mean none of us.
 
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