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Do all women need a "covering"? And what is a "covering"?

Off-gridinwv said:
I think the problem lies with what you and I consider to be scripture. I believe God is well able to get us His Word in the universal language of our day that's why you never see me referring to the unknown unseen thing-a-mabobs called the Greek and Hebrew. I interpret the Bible by comparing scripture with scripture and reject the private interpretations of the protestant popes
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I also believe that to be true. But when scholars add words and even italicize them to show that they dont exist, we should be careful to build doctrine on them.
 
James Pease said:
Have fun reading the message bible 😂 that must be inspired too
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You can tell which one is inspired. The one that has had a proven track record since 1611, that's been believed the most, that's been responsible for the most conversions,and that's been attacked by Satan the most
 
Off-gridinwv said:
You can tell which one is inspired. The one that has had a proven track record since 1611, that's been believed the most, that's been responsible for the most conversions,and that's been attacked by Satan the most
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I don't have much quarrel there.

The reason 2 or 3 witnesses are important is to help with different translations and misunderstandings. One verse doctrine is very dangerous. We should seek His whole council.
 
Off-gridinwv said:
You can tell which one is inspired. The one that has had a proven track record since 1611, that's been believed the most, that's been responsible for the most conversions,and that's been attacked by Satan the most
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Do I understand you to be saying the 1611 KJV translation is the inspired text and the copies of the autographs in the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek languages are not? Are subsequent revisions of the 1611 translation the inspired text?

I don't want to derail the thread so simple straightforward answers would be appreciated.

Oh, and one further question, have you ever read the 1611 KJV translation?

Shalom
 
A
frederick said:
Do I understand you to be saying the 1611 KJV translation is the inspired text and the copies of the autographs in the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek languages are not? Are subsequent revisions of the 1611 translation the inspired text?

I don't want to derail the thread so simple straightforward answers would be appreciated.

Oh, and one further question, have you ever read the 1611 KJV translation?

Shalom
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ARe the copies you just spoke of in a book that I can read and are they profitable to me for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction in righteousness and can they thoroughly furnish me unto all good works seeing I don't have them. Could it be the various editions of the KJB was God's process of purifying His Word(see Psalm 12) and also what editions of the"Greek" and "Hebrew" do you use?
.
 
Off-gridinwv said:
A

ARe the copies you just spoke of in a book that I can read and are they profitable to me for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction in righteousness and can they thoroughly furnish me unto all good works seeing I don't have them. Could it be the various editions of the KJB was God's process of purifying His Word(see Psalm 12) and also what editions of the"Greek" and "Hebrew" do you use?
.
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Ahh... kjvo.... 🙄

The KJ  translators had only six copies of the Greek and one of thilose was carefully, uhh, altered by Erasmus to fit RCC theology...

Yeah. I'll agree KJ is a good translation, but it's a loooong way from improvement or superior to the now 5000+ Greek manuscripts we have.

Now, back to the OP before you embarass yourself.
 
PeteR said:
Ahh... kjvo.... 🙄

The KJ  translators had only six copies of the Greek and one of thilose was carefully, uhh, altered by Erasmus to fit RCC theology...

Yeah. I'll agree KJ is a good translation, but it's a loooong way from improvement or superior to the now 5000+ Greek manuscripts we have.

Now, back to the OP before you embarass yourself.
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So you believe all scripture WAS given by inspiration instead of all scripture IS given by inspiration like the Bible says
 
So where is this boogy man you call the" Greek" and will I have to be able to afford higher education to understand it or do I just need to trust you"scholars" to understand it?
 
Off-gridinwv said:
A

ARe the copies you just spoke of in a book that I can read and are they profitable to me for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction in righteousness and can they thoroughly furnish me unto all good works seeing I don't have them. Could it be the various editions of the KJB was God's process of purifying His Word(see Psalm 12) and also what editions of the"Greek" and "Hebrew" do you use?
.
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Yes or No would suffice. And you didn't answer my question; Have you read the 1611 edition of the KJV?
 
Off-gridinwv said:
So you believe all scripture WAS given by inspiration instead of all scripture IS given by inspiration like the Bible says
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Seems to me that Paul wrote 'all Scripture IS given...' about 1600 years before kjv ... so, he was refering to Greek and Hebrew. My recommendation would be to learn how to use the amazing tools available to help the average joe access the depth of the original languages instead of depending on translators that had limited access and knowledge in the 15/600s..
 
PeteR said:
Seems to me that Paul wrote 'all Scripture IS given...' about 1600 years before kjv ... so, he was refering to Greek and Hebrew. My recommendation would be to learn how to use the amazing tools available to help the average joe access the depth of the original languages instead of depending on translators that had limited access and knowledge in the 15/600s..
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Poor little old God just wasn't able to get His Word in the hands of common ordinary dust like me. All of these tools and Greek scholarship haven't sparked a revival since the scholars started using it to correct the Book
 
Off-gridinwv said:
Poor little old God just wasn't able to get His Word in the hands of common ordinary dust like me. All of these tools and Greek scholarship haven't sparked a revival since the scholars started using it to correct the Book
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PeteR said:
Now, back to the OP before you embarass yourself.
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Too late.

It is written, Even a fool, when he holdeth his peace, is counted wise: And he that shutteth his lips is esteemed a man of understanding (Proverbs 17:28 KJV).
 
James Pease said:
In this case we are talking of whether a head covering is required or not required. If the law does require it then we need 2 or 3 witnesses to call it a sin.

Deuteronomy 19
15¶'One witness doth not rise against a man for any iniquity, and for any sin, in any sin which he sinneth; by the mouth of two witnesses, or by the mouth of three witnesses, is a thing established.

2nd Corinthians (Paul is quoting Deuteronomy)
1¶This third time do I come unto you; on the mouth of two witnesses or three shall every saying be established;

Deuteronomy 17. No death penalty is brought without 2 or 3 witnesses either

6By the mouth of two witnesses or of three witnesses is he who is dead put to death; he is not put to death by the mouth of one witness;


Heaven and earth are the witnesses of the Torah being upheld. Yeshua also answers the pharisees here in John.

John 8
13¶The Pharisees, therefore, said to him, 'Thou of thyself dost testify, thy testimony is not true;'

14¶Jesus answered and said to them, 'And if I testify of myself -- my testimony is true, because I have known whence I came, and whither I go, and ye -- ye have not known whence I come, or whither I go.

15'Ye according to the flesh do judge; I do not judge any one,

16and even if I do judge my judgment is true, because I am not alone, but I and the Father who sent me;

17and also in your law it hath been written, that the testimony of two men are true;

18I am one who is testifying of myself, and the Father who sent me doth testify of me.'



The scripture requires 2 or 3 witnesses before someone is guilty. If it is a sin to not cover your hair then that matter should be established by 2 or 3 witnesses. If it's not a sin, then each man can require and not require at his own choosing.
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Sin is always sin. It doesn't matter how much people are involved.

To punish people for sin requires legal process. And you can't have fair process with just one witness. He could be lying and there is nobody else to check his words.
 
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