Off-gridinwv
New Member
Isaiah 47:2; Num.5:18While that's your opinion and your welcome to it, that's not what the scripture says. Every matter is to be established by the mouth of 2 or 3 witnesses. Provide the witnesses.
Isaiah 47:2; Num.5:18While that's your opinion and your welcome to it, that's not what the scripture says. Every matter is to be established by the mouth of 2 or 3 witnesses. Provide the witnesses.
You are conjecturing that a veil is the same as a head covering per Isaiah 47?Isaiah 47:2; Num.5:18
But is there anywhere in Torah where it forbids healing on the Sabbath? It is possible that Jesus is not giving an exception, but rather in his capacity as Rabbi simply expounding the existing law. The Pharisees may have incorrectly thought Torah forbids healing on the Sabbath, and Jesus' point may be that healing is not "work" so was never covered by the law in the first place.
This is a bit of a sidetrack though, if you want to go into that in detail it's probably better elsewhere.
The Pharisees may have incorrectly thought Torah forbids healing on the Sabbath.
Where’s the scripture that says everything has to be established by two or three witnesses?While that's your opinion and your welcome to it, that's not what the scripture says. Every matter is to be established by the mouth of 2 or 3 witnesses. Provide the witnesses.
I was conjecturing that Isaiah 47:2 teaches that it' was unladylike for a woman to uncover her locksYou are conjecturing that a veil is the same as a head covering per Isaiah 47?
I was asking for a passage that stated head coverings are a requirement. Do you have any of those?
In this case we are talking of whether a head covering is required or not required. If the law does require it then we need 2 or 3 witnesses to call it a sin.Where’s the scripture that says everything has to be established by two or three witnesses?
Why did Rebekah only veil herself before Isaac saw her, shouldn't she have been covered before that then? Was she only being lady like in front of her betrothed? Gen 24 for reference.I was conjecturing that Isaiah 47:2 teaches that it' was unladylike for a woman to uncover her locks
Two different things. A head covering covered the hair and a veil covered the face. The covering of the face was an act of shamefacedness when a woman knew she was about to be married (gone into). This explains why Jacob didn't know Leah and Judah thought Tamar was a harlotWhy did Rebekah only veil herself before Isaac saw her, shouldn't she have been covered before that then? Was she only being lady like in front of her betrothed? Gen 24 for reference.
And then of course in Gen 38 we have a case were Judah thought tamar to be a whore because she covered her face.
Are you separating a head covering and a veil or calling them the same thing?
Same word for Rebekah and tamarTwo different things. A head covering covered the hair and a veil covered the face. The covering of the face was an act of shamefacedness when a woman knew she was about to be married (gone into). This explains why Jacob didn't know Leah and Judah thought Tamar was a harlot
Do you have any passage that requires head coverings? Where there is no law there is no transgression.Two different things. A head covering covered the hair and a veil covered the face. The covering of the face was an act of shamefacedness when a woman knew she was about to be married (gone into). This explains why Jacob didn't know Leah and Judah thought Tamar was a harlot
1Cor.:11Do you have any passage that requires head coverings? Where there is no law there is no transgression.
Well definitely not a law, so not required.1
1Cor.:11
SO an ordinance is not a law?Well definitely not a law, so not required.
Absolutely. But if you understand the Corinthians passage to be a piece a cloth and not a man as your head, you will miss a lot of what the scripture has to say. Especially about conduct in the assembly.Just to be clear, this thread was never about physical head coverings.
Your misunderstanding of the passage with no other witnesses does not make it an ordinance.S
SO an ordinance is not a law?
When a God.inspired apostle says it's an ordinance then it isYour misunderstanding of the passage with no other witnesses does not make it an ordinance.
Your misunderstanding of the passage with no other witnesses does not make it an ordinance
He taught that a covering was necessary for a woman, like the Torah supports.When a God.inspired apostle says it's an ordinance then it is
Paul didn't teach things that were contrary to Torah. He believed everything written in them and gave his life so that all might hear.When a God.inspired apostle says it's an ordinance then it is
I think the problem lies with what you and I consider to be scripture. I believe God is well able to get us His Word in the universal language of our day that's why you never see me referring to the unknown unseen thing-a-mabobs called the Greek and Hebrew. I interpret the Bible by comparing scripture with scripture and reject the private interpretations of the protestant popesHe taught that a covering was necessary for a woman, like the Torah supports.
He did not teach that a piece of cloth was required for a woman to pray/prophesy in the assembly. Which is not supported by the Torah. I will do a breakdown of the highlights of the chapter and what the language actually says. If i remember right there are over 5 things added by so called scholars to try and guide you to what understanding they think you should have.