This is something that is commonly stated as a fact, but a recent discussion has shown it is not universally accepted as such. I think this would be profitable to tease out. To briefly summarise the points made in that discussion:
Question 1: What does the word "covering" mean, in the statement "every woman needs a covering"? What IS this covering?
Question 2: Does that word (or an equivalent) appear in scripture directly, or is this a theological term introduced later to explain a scriptural concept?
The previous conversation continued essentially using "covering" and "marriage" interchangeably:
Question 4: Are all men required to give covering to at least one woman?
Expanding this, Yah’s pattern/plan was for every woman to be covered, which is impossible without polygyny.
At this point, one problem may be that the word "covered" is undefined, and people may be talking at cross purposes as a result.Please show where the Bible says it is Yah's pattern/plan for every woman to be covered. I'm not saying it isn't, I just ask that you prove this assertion.
Question 1: What does the word "covering" mean, in the statement "every woman needs a covering"? What IS this covering?
Question 2: Does that word (or an equivalent) appear in scripture directly, or is this a theological term introduced later to explain a scriptural concept?
The previous conversation continued essentially using "covering" and "marriage" interchangeably:
I do not believe single women should be told they need a covering.
1 Timothy 5:14-15 I will therefore that the younger women marry, bear children, guide the house, give none occasion to the adversary to speak reproachfully. 15 For some are already turned aside after Satan.
Titus 2:4-5 That they may teach the young women to be sober, to love their husbands, to love their children, 5 To be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
1 Cor. 7:2; Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband.
These are commands for each man and each woman, not good ideas for people to decide on.
The reason for the command is given in the text; Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. If a person is not tempted by immorality, there is no need to have a spouse.
Question 3: Are all women required to be covered (i.e. is it sinful for them not to be)? Or is it just advisable?Fair enough, but since you brought up this verse to support another’s refutation of my comment [that we should not teach that women need to be covered] and you are acknowledging the conditional within that scripture, then maybe we can teach that not all women need to be covered/married.
I don’t know that this is correct, but perhaps telling women who are tempted by immorality that they should marry is correct… but: it would be wrong then to convey command to marry to those who are not tempted by immorality?
Question 4: Are all men required to give covering to at least one woman?