I am honored by your responses,
@Pacman. Thank you.
I'm not aware of any examples of this [description of a woman widowed from betrothal] in the scriptures.
I did some more looking into this and still came up empty-handed, but if you (or anyone else) find this any time in the future, I'd love to know about it.
My initial response is yes but I'm not sure why. We do know that if she is with another man even during betrothal but before being taken then it's adultery so I tend to think other laws related to this thing we call marriage would also apply... But I cannot point to any proof of that.
Without proof we have to watch out for the snare of adding to Scripture. You refer later to the issue of possession. What do you think of this?: it's adultery if she has sex with a different man even though she's just betrothed
because she is already promised to someone, because adultery is breach of promise in that case; however, if she doesn't commit adultery prior to consummation and her betrothed passes away before consummation, the breach of promise disappears. She lived up to her end of the bargain, as did he. Producing an heir for a deceased brother who had been working on producing an heir is one thing, but producing an heir for a deceased brother who hadn't even been intimate with the woman would almost be macabre. In such a case, the surviving brother
offering to be betrothed to the widowed-betrothed of his deceased brother would be a magnanimous gesture, perhaps, but I think we're stretching the shrink-wrap too far in two directions to make this one fit.
it does seem clear to me that, in ancient society and specifically in ancient Israelite society, marriages were arranged by contract between, on the one hand, (a) either the man in question or his father, and, on the other hand, (b) the father of the proposed bride or the father's representative. Given that that was the case, and given that that is no longer the case, as well as that, outside of moving to a country that enforces sharia law, we have no framework within which we could legally require adherence to such a framework, how would you suggest we can, in the 21st century, come closest to establishing marriages in the eyes of Elohim according to His Word?
I am doing it by raising my daughters in the same belief. I'm surrounding my family with other like minded families. I moved to a different state and disconnected from the grid with this being one of the major reasons for doing so. You are correct we do not have legal backing. Therefore we need to be careful to teach our women and children correctly and we as men need to actively support the fathers rights when we desire to take a woman...
Amen to that. I myself was guilty of failing to do that with Kristin, my present wife. She convinced me that eloping was the only way we could accomplish getting married, and not only did it create tremendous long-term conflict between me and her parents, but it set a tone even within our marriage that was a witch's brew for trouble.
I highly respect you for the degree to which you were willing to make these things such high priorities for yourself and your family.
Actually teaching our women is more important than teaching our children. I am yet to see a father produce righteous children when their mother is rebellious.
Amen, Jeremy, amen. Excellent point. My family is living bad-example proof of that. We're not a total disaster, but monumental problems flow from a man condoning his woman being rebellious. To the extent that we've turned that around, the pay-off has been remarkable, for everyone.
Short answer is No.
Marriage is the wrong term here. It's actually not a biblical term. The Bible term is more like "possess" or "take" or "master" it's transfer of ownership.
Most fathers in western culture have abdicated their authority to their daughters so according to Numbers 30 their vows stand. When she is intimate with a man often its nothing more than whoredom or harlotry. Eventually she agrees to some sort of commitment with a man and they begin putting their lives together and having offspring. I'm not convinced that is something that Elohim has joined together but it's what we tend to recognize as marriage. Most of the time the woman never even repents of her harlotry. She views it as "no big deal" and just moves on with her life. Under biblical law she would have been put to death long ago.
So our understandings are relatively congruent,
@Pacman, but my question remains to some extent. We teach our wives; we teach our daughters -- and, then, like it or not, our daughters ultimately are legally released into a culture that not only fails to support what we've taught them but rewards them for turning their backs on what they've been taught. I'm not even coming close to suggesting that we compromise what we teach them, but is there, from your perspective, some type of middle ground we can occupy in regard to preparing them for the potential that they will avail themselves of the freedom to behave as harlots? I'll be transparent here in regard to this particular issue: it's very real for me with 17- and 19-year-old daughters who were almost entirely raised within the context of having a weak father and a rebellious mother who encouraged
their rebellion and is only beginning to regret that encouragement. I don't even
want to have the option to stone them to death -- and we can see how long
that lasted even within Scripture -- but I wouldn't mind some suggestions about how to make lemon out of lemonade. At this point I'm relying on ensuring that I communicate to them what God's Will is in the matter, as well as being transparent with them about how I failed them as a father, dancing as best I can so that I don't entirely invalidate the worthiness of what I have to convey to them
now. I don't hesitate to tell them that my former position of feeling like I didn't even have a leg to stand on to assert with authority how
they should make such crucial life decisions was an abdication of my responsibilities as a father, nor do I hesitate to share with them my more-informed current perspectives, but any proactive and supportive suggestion you (or others) have along these lines would be welcome.
This next sentence is not directed toward you, Jeremy, but, given certain experiences we've all witnessed here on this site, I believe it needs to be said: what I'm
not requesting is for anyone to think this is some great time to
condemn me. It would be pointless. I've done enough of it myself (just go back and read the last paragraph if you doubt that; I'm harder on myself than I am on anyone else).
and this one isn't for
@Pacman but for those who asserted their existence and from whom I'm unaware of any response . . .
I'm still patiently waiting for the scriptures that (a) detail what YHWH does that joins man and woman together in marriage and (b) demonstrate that one-flesh either has nothing to do with sex or isn't the essential behavior that initiates marriage.
@Pacman, as I wrote the last time, the reminders about those two claims being backed up were not directed to you, but given your responses above I'm wondering if you have any thoughts about them: (a) do you have an opinion about where YHWH explains what He does that joins man and woman together in marriage?; nd (b) are you aware of any Scripture that asserts that one-flesh has nothing to do with sex?