In the creation account we are told God brought the woman to the man on the sixth day. When did they consumate their relationship and become one flesh? Just wondering.
Great question, Frederick. The answer can begin with, sometime before the conception of Cain, but they certainly weren't married immediately upon the moment that YHWH removed the female angular organs from Adam.
Well, if you believe I can do better, then I humbly request that you demonstrate by example. I believe I've made it plain that I'm uncertain that any of us have discovered The Dispositive Determination of the question of when marriage begins but that, until I am presented with something other than "penumbras formed by emanations" creating partial shadows from out-of-context scriptural anecdotes, I'm of the opinion that marriage begins at physical sexual consummation, the point at which a man and a woman become one flesh.Come on Keith, you can do better than that. God brought the woman to the man; she was his; his companion and helper. Adam had the right to have a sexual relationship with Eve because she was his. The same with Joseph and Mary; she was his woman (Matt. 1:20); the woman of you (genitive of possession).
Therefore, when I write, "but they certainly weren't married immediately upon the moment that YHWH removed the female angular organs from Adam," I'm using 'married' in alignment with my assumption, but here's what confuses me: I was answering your question, which was, "When did they consumate their relationship and become one flesh?" Or did you intend for that sentence to essentially be two questions (When did they consummate their relationship? and When did they become one-flesh?) -- because the standard grammatical reading would determine, due to the conjunction 'and,' that the two (consummation and becoming one-flesh) were inextricably linked to the question of when. Are you asserting that they became one-flesh the moment that YHWH gave Eve to Adam? Or that the very moment He gave her to him, Adam uncovered Eve's naked nakedness and took her virginity? In any case, shifting from a question of consummation and one-fleshedness to determining when Eve became Adam's qualifies as a moving-the-goalposts red herring, because my post was not designed to be an answer to When did Eve start belonging to Adam?
So I'll repeat: please lead by example: are you asserting any of the following:
- That they were married either at the moment YHWH brought Eve back to Adam (Genesis 2:22) or at the moment when He told them to be fruitful and increase (Genesis 1:28)?
- That they became one-flesh immediately after 2:22 or 1:28?
- That they sexually consummated their relationship immediately after 2:22 or 1:28?
- That being one-flesh has some other meaning than sexual consummation?
- That the Creation account is dispositive for determining when marriage begins; e.g., are you saying that Adam and Eve's story is the model for all marriage?
However, if you're not asserting anything along the lines of those 5 categories, what was the purpose of your wondering about when the first human beings consummated their relationship and became one flesh?