So here's my reply to the preacher using Deut. 17:17 to justify the comment he made about it being wrong for Solomon to have more than one wife. He then went on say God commanded the kings to only have one wife. Thanks guys for your feedback above. I've tried to bring the focus back to Israel's kings and his attempt to justify his original comment from Deut. 17:17. Below is the main content of my reply.
I think I understand your position; you think God forbids polygamy because He forbids divorce. Am I correct?
I can see from your comments that there is no clear command from God against the kings of Israel taking more than one wife. However, we know it is a sin for the kings to take another man's wife to himself, because that violates God's commandment forbidding adultery (e.g. Deut. 5:18). We can see from the example of God's confrontation of David after taking Uriah's wife that such action is sin (cf. 1 Kings 15:5). Yet we know that divorce is allowed because God makes specific provision for divorce and therefore the one divorcing an unrepentant adulterous spouse is not in sin, and is free to marry. (I am aware there are differing views on divorce and of marriage of those who are divorced so I'll leave that matter there.) Suffice to say; it is by the law we have a knowledge of sin and we know that adultery is sin by the law.
So my concern remains as there is no command stated or implied by God against the kings having multiple wives nor any example of God's disapproval of the kings (or Abraham, Jacob, Giddeon, etc.) taking more than one wife. The language of passages such as 1 Kings 15:5; 2 Chron. 24:2-3; etc., raise no concerns about the legitimacy of Israel's kings taking more than one wife. There is nothing to indicate David was doing anything outside the will of God in taking e.g. Abigail and Ahinoam as wives. Even God illustrates His relationship with Israel and Judah as being "a husband to them" (Jer. 31:31-32); "them" being plural. In the examples of faithful men in Hebrews Chapter 11, there are those who were monogamous and those who were polygynous yet none are regarded as having done anything wrong or sinful in establishing their marriages - as though those marriages were not permitted by God.
In the beginning, in the Garden, Adam had Eve as a wife; they were naked; they were horticulturalists; they were vegetarians, and they were monogamous. Their son Cain was the child of monogamous parents. Through this couple came sin and their son was the first murderer. I see nothing in the example of Adam and Eve's marital relationship being that would elevate monogamy over polygyny, and I haven't seen anything yet that would forbid Israel's kings from taking more than one wife in the light of all that is said in Scripture.
I think I understand your position; you think God forbids polygamy because He forbids divorce. Am I correct?
I can see from your comments that there is no clear command from God against the kings of Israel taking more than one wife. However, we know it is a sin for the kings to take another man's wife to himself, because that violates God's commandment forbidding adultery (e.g. Deut. 5:18). We can see from the example of God's confrontation of David after taking Uriah's wife that such action is sin (cf. 1 Kings 15:5). Yet we know that divorce is allowed because God makes specific provision for divorce and therefore the one divorcing an unrepentant adulterous spouse is not in sin, and is free to marry. (I am aware there are differing views on divorce and of marriage of those who are divorced so I'll leave that matter there.) Suffice to say; it is by the law we have a knowledge of sin and we know that adultery is sin by the law.
So my concern remains as there is no command stated or implied by God against the kings having multiple wives nor any example of God's disapproval of the kings (or Abraham, Jacob, Giddeon, etc.) taking more than one wife. The language of passages such as 1 Kings 15:5; 2 Chron. 24:2-3; etc., raise no concerns about the legitimacy of Israel's kings taking more than one wife. There is nothing to indicate David was doing anything outside the will of God in taking e.g. Abigail and Ahinoam as wives. Even God illustrates His relationship with Israel and Judah as being "a husband to them" (Jer. 31:31-32); "them" being plural. In the examples of faithful men in Hebrews Chapter 11, there are those who were monogamous and those who were polygynous yet none are regarded as having done anything wrong or sinful in establishing their marriages - as though those marriages were not permitted by God.
In the beginning, in the Garden, Adam had Eve as a wife; they were naked; they were horticulturalists; they were vegetarians, and they were monogamous. Their son Cain was the child of monogamous parents. Through this couple came sin and their son was the first murderer. I see nothing in the example of Adam and Eve's marital relationship being that would elevate monogamy over polygyny, and I haven't seen anything yet that would forbid Israel's kings from taking more than one wife in the light of all that is said in Scripture.
