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Meat One Flesh: Restoring God's words around "marriage"

If anal sex occurs, it is the same argument as the PIV- they are physically "one flesh"
How do we actually know that?
And does it differ from oral? If so, how?

And leave off with the reasons for not doing it, that discussion doesn’t belong here.
 
Bill Klinton says, "No. Oral sex doesn't count. Because it all depends on what the meaning of 'sex' is."
Hence the reason that I asked for Bible based answers 😉
 
I don’t believe that oral sex or anal sex actually count as sex because there is no seed that is being used to be fruitful and for multiplying.
 
How do we actually know that?
And does it differ from oral? If so, how?
What we DO know from Scripture is that a "man lying with a man as with a women" (English variants exist, but the gist is similar) is prohibited, and carries the death penalty.

And there is NO Scriptural prohibition on a man with his wife. (Paul's midrash - or whoever actually wrote the letter to the Hebrews - says the marriage bed is not 'defiled.' I leave it to husbands to discuss their interpretation of that with their wives. I have.)


Disgustingly, I know OF 'rabbis' who will perform 'gay' so-called marriages on codition that the 'joinees' avoid anal sex. Of course, there are 'protesting catholics' who don't even ask that.
 
I don’t believe that oral sex or anal sex actually count as sex because there is no seed that is being used to be fruitful and for multiplying.
If 'zerah' (seed) is spilled, there are admonitions in that oft-forbidden Torah that have to do with subsequent cleanliness...

That applies, of course, even to 'nocturnal emissions' for kids and incels. ;)
 
No. Because if there was, there would be dozens or even hundreds of men who would be obligated to marry that one woman. Which is polyandry, and forbidden. The law does not require sin.

We know every man who unites with a prostitute is one flesh with her. In this case, one flesh is not marriage, it's a diabolical mess we're told to run a mile from.
Or it’s hundred of cases of adultery all requiring death.
 
Intercourse is transfer of ownership that can be nullified by previous patriarch. It is not polyandry. Polyandry does not exist biblically.

If what you are saying is true about one flesh union act is not equate to marriage then how does 1 Corinthians 6:16 contribute to severity of what Paul warns us about. That verse does not have much meaning. It would be just easier to say that sex with a harlot is an abomination (different severity), like it was said about many other sexual sins. Yet in this case a motivation/reason was provided to avoid sex with a prostitute.

One flesh union act is marriage, sex with prohibited people and animals is abomination. A prostitute returning to her previous customer is abomination, a prostitute getting a new customer after you is an adultery. (I think, I am learning out loud)

A man can form one flesh union with a prostitute. He cannot form one union with what is prohibited. Intercourse with an animal does not obligate that man to continue to provide "congecial rights" to that animal, two do not become one here. That is abomination.

"What? Do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For “the two,” He says, “shall become one flesh.”. " - by adding this Paul wanted to emphasize severity of the act. With the understanding you hold to, this portion does not have much weight. Unless it would say that it is abomination. But in this case Paul may be saying, "you just created a bond that obligates you to that prostitute". With your understanding, a person may respond to Paul's reasoning, "so what, I say white lies sometimes".
What is "one flesh"? Think about the words. They have a literal meaning.

You are spiritualising this and imagining the term "one flesh" to refer to something in the spiritual or moral realm, something intangible, something religious. Having given it a religious meaning you can then talk about making and breaking this thing all day long (as a prostitute would do), because it isn't actually real, just a religious label.

I on the other hand believe it is something real, physical, tangible. Not something that can be changed with a decision of man, jumped in and out of multiple times a day. But an actual physical change in the "flesh", as scripture tells us.

That is far more serious and requires a whole different understanding of what is going on here. I think your approach is flippant.
 
Or it’s hundred of cases of adultery all requiring death.
A completely valid hypothesis in theory, but one which you would expect to be corroborated in scripture. It would mean prostitution should receive the death penalty, but I can think of no example in scripture of that punishment being either prescribed or given for prostitution, and as the use of prostitutes appears all through scripture one would expect this to be mentioned somewhere. It isn't, there might be death for false worship that involved temple prostitutes but never for prostitution alone. I don't want to add to scripture.
 
A completely valid hypothesis in theory, but one which you would expect to be corroborated in scripture. It would mean prostitution should receive the death penalty, but I can think of no example in scripture of that punishment being either prescribed or given for prostitution, and as the use of prostitutes appears all through scripture one would expect this to be mentioned somewhere. It isn't, there might be death for false worship that involved temple prostitutes but never for prostitution alone. I don't want to add to scripture.
I can’t remember one example of punishment being given for adultery other than King David.
 
True, but the death penalty is prescribed for it in Torah. Prostitution is mentioned in Torah as a separate matter to adultery, but with no punishment prescribed, just "don't let your daughters do it".

Also, are there any positive examples of adulteresses being reformed and accepted? Not that I can think of. Yet we have Rahab the reformed prostitute in the line of Jesus.

They just seem to be treated quite differently.
 
Lev. 21:9 -- the daughter of a kohen who is a prostitute. (Judah got that one a bit wrong...on more than one level.)
Interesting, thankyou. The exception that proves the rule, since it's only applied to the daughters of priests. If all prostitutes were to be killed, it would just say so. The fact it is limited to only the daughters of priests shows everyone else was held to a lower standard. This confirms what I said, that adultery was punishable by death, but prostitution was generally not, so prostitution is different to adultery.
 
If anal sex occurs, it is the same argument as the PIV- they are physically "one flesh". Gays do this all the time but we soundly reject that, but why? Here's why: anal sex is inherently filthy- Scripture calls it abomination. Fecal matter on a penis is dangerous to the next vagina that is in contact. The penis and vagina are naturally clean, and the anus is naturally filled with bacteria.
Paleeeze... I just had lunch! 💩🤮
 
What is "one flesh"? Think about the words. They have a literal meaning.

You are spiritualising this and imagining the term "one flesh" to refer to something in the spiritual or moral realm, something intangible, something religious. Having given it a religious meaning you can then talk about making and breaking this thing all day long (as a prostitute would do), because it isn't actually real, just a religious label.

I on the other hand believe it is something real, physical, tangible. Not something that can be changed with a decision of man, jumped in and out of multiple times a day. But an actual physical change in the "flesh", as scripture tells us.

That is far more serious and requires a whole different understanding of what is going on here. I think your approach is flippant.
I read my own posts twice just to see how you could conclude that about me. You are so wrong. You may want to review what I have been saying.
I have being saying that the act that results in one flesh ( biblical euphemism for formation of family unit ) is binding that comes with certain responsibilities that is why it is paramount with whom a person creates that bond.
 
The trigger for my thinking was:
Intercourse is transfer of ownership
If that is actually applied to prostitution, you get the situation I described and criticised - multiple ownership transfers a day for a prostitute. See previous post for why that doesn't work and why I consider it a flippant attitude.

But I don't think you'd actually thought it through that far, and should have explained myself first rather than launching into a lecture against something you hadn't thought of yet! Sorry.
 
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