How do we actually know that?
And does it differ from oral? If so, how?
And leave off with the reasons for not doing it, that discussion doesn’t belong here.
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Meat One Flesh: Restoring God's words around "marriage"
- Thread starter The Revolting Man
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And does it differ from oral? If so, how?
And leave off with the reasons for not doing it, that discussion doesn’t belong here.
Bill Klinton says, "No. Oral sex doesn't count. Because it all depends on what the meaning of 'sex' is."
Hence the reason that I asked for Bible based answers
What we DO know from Scripture is that a "man lying with a man as with a women" (English variants exist, but the gist is similar) is prohibited, and carries the death penalty.
And there is NO Scriptural prohibition on a man with his wife. (Paul's midrash - or whoever actually wrote the letter to the Hebrews - says the marriage bed is not 'defiled.' I leave it to husbands to discuss their interpretation of that with their wives. I have.)
Disgustingly, I know OF 'rabbis' who will perform 'gay' so-called marriages on codition that the 'joinees' avoid anal sex. Of course, there are 'protesting catholics' who don't even ask that.
If 'zerah' (seed) is spilled, there are admonitions in that oft-forbidden Torah that have to do with subsequent cleanliness...
That applies, of course, even to 'nocturnal emissions' for kids and incels.
Or it’s hundred of cases of adultery all requiring death.
What is "one flesh"? Think about the words. They have a literal meaning.
You are spiritualising this and imagining the term "one flesh" to refer to something in the spiritual or moral realm, something intangible, something religious. Having given it a religious meaning you can then talk about making and breaking this thing all day long (as a prostitute would do), because it isn't actually real, just a religious label.
I on the other hand believe it is something real, physical, tangible. Not something that can be changed with a decision of man, jumped in and out of multiple times a day. But an actual physical change in the "flesh", as scripture tells us.
That is far more serious and requires a whole different understanding of what is going on here. I think your approach is flippant.
A completely valid hypothesis in theory, but one which you would expect to be corroborated in scripture. It would mean prostitution should receive the death penalty, but I can think of no example in scripture of that punishment being either prescribed or given for prostitution, and as the use of prostitutes appears all through scripture one would expect this to be mentioned somewhere. It isn't, there might be death for false worship that involved temple prostitutes but never for prostitution alone. I don't want to add to scripture.
I can’t remember one example of punishment being given for adultery other than King David.
True, but the death penalty is prescribed for it in Torah. Prostitution is mentioned in Torah as a separate matter to adultery, but with no punishment prescribed, just "don't let your daughters do it".
Also, are there any positive examples of adulteresses being reformed and accepted? Not that I can think of. Yet we have Rahab the reformed prostitute in the line of Jesus.
They just seem to be treated quite differently.
Also, are there any positive examples of adulteresses being reformed and accepted? Not that I can think of. Yet we have Rahab the reformed prostitute in the line of Jesus.
They just seem to be treated quite differently.
Lev. 21:9 -- the daughter of a kohen who is a prostitute. (Judah got that one a bit wrong...on more than one level.)
Interesting, thankyou. The exception that proves the rule, since it's only applied to the daughters of priests. If all prostitutes were to be killed, it would just say so. The fact it is limited to only the daughters of priests shows everyone else was held to a lower standard. This confirms what I said, that adultery was punishable by death, but prostitution was generally not, so prostitution is different to adultery.
I read my own posts twice just to see how you could conclude that about me. You are so wrong. You may want to review what I have been saying.
I have being saying that the act that results in one flesh ( biblical euphemism for formation of family unit ) is binding that comes with certain responsibilities that is why it is paramount with whom a person creates that bond.
The trigger for my thinking was:
But I don't think you'd actually thought it through that far, and should have explained myself first rather than launching into a lecture against something you hadn't thought of yet! Sorry.
If that is actually applied to prostitution, you get the situation I described and criticised - multiple ownership transfers a day for a prostitute. See previous post for why that doesn't work and why I consider it a flippant attitude.
But I don't think you'd actually thought it through that far, and should have explained myself first rather than launching into a lecture against something you hadn't thought of yet! Sorry.
I need to do some refreshing on this but I don’t think prostitute is a directly translated concept to the modern conception. I might be misremembering something though.
If prostitution as we think of it isn’t directly proscribed though I would say that it must be part of some other category that is then. As far as reformed adulteresses we certainly have the example of the women caught in adultery brought to Christ and even the example of the Virgin Mary who was credibly accused of adultery and not punished.
Man_in_the_Middle
Member
Not to mention, two prostitutes came before Solomon and explained their living arrangement and asked for him to resolve a dispute over a baby.
They were not in danger for their lady of the night status..
That's for men with men. Where is the prohibition against male/female anal sex? Chapter and verse please.