We're not saying it's Moses' Law. We're saying the Creator decided to have His Law called - "The Law of Moses."
But He
didn't. He called it His 'torah', His "teaching and instruction."
...
Malachi 4:4
Remember the law of my servant Moses, the decrees and laws I gave him at Horeb for all Israel.
Why is He 'redundant'? Why are two DIFFERENT Hebrew words MIS-translated there in the same English verse? (both "LAW" - but NEITHER actually is!)
Remember ye the law [torah, "
instruction" - bigger than just 'law']
of Moses my servant, which I commanded unto him in Horeb for all Israel, with the statutes and judgments. (Malachi 4:4, KJV)
And, amazing - "statutes" [chuqqim] and "judgments" [mishpatim]
ARE actually words that have a "law" understanding. But they are just elements.
When He means "statutes, judgments, and commandments," - He says so. And when He means
instruction, including everything from those elements, to stories, to precedents, to parables - He says so too!
And He says "torah". Moses even Wrote it down at His command.
PS> And for those who still hate His "law" - by whatever name, and like to try to "trigger" those who don't - note the phrase
"all Israel," in that verse. Some might hate that, too, and refer in ignorance to just one-twelfth part of that with a pejorative, but
the rest of us believe that being "grated in," to
kol Israel is a great promise from the "Salvation of YHVH."