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God not a polygamist?

To add to my last post ...

Adultery is the only possible just cause for divorce, being too late at getting ready is not sufficient cause.
There is no reason to believe the foolish virgins had been unfaithful and committed adultery with some other male.
Thus, they were not shut out due to the bridegroom divorcing them for any just cause (or unjust cause).
If they were left behind and shut out, but were yet betrothed to Him, that is a problematic idea.
It would mean He abandoned and shut them out while yet being His beloved and betrothed.
But He has clearly said to His own "I will never leave you nor forsake you".

Were the five foolish virgins as His (supposedly) betrothed, left and forsaken because they had fallen asleep and not gotten ready on time?
Really?

They simply were never betrothed to Him.

The five who went in with Him were wise unto salvation.
The five who were left and shut out, still had the foolishness of this world in them and were not wise unto salvation.
No divorce was needed or executed - they never were in relationship of betrothal to Him in the first place.
In addition, proper divorce requires a bill of divorcement - they never got one - well then again, maybe we could use some eisegesis and get them one?
 
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The original post was framed in a way to assert that God may have been a polygamist in the OT, and the reference is in the nations Judah and Israel being His two wives. The majority Christian view is that the two nations become one under Christ, known as the Bride of Christ in the book of Revelations, the culmination of the NT.

Most objections to polygamy is stated as polygamy is not on the NT. I am trying to find a response to that objection.

If they are brides, what happened to the 5.

The Hebrew culture is important, at least to me on trying understand what is going on.
 
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If they are bribes, there was a contract, particular if they were given a time to wait.

In any event, since we can not establish something on just one reference in God's Word, where is another reference to polygamy in the NT?
 
Cap said:
Betrothal, consummation, wedding feast is the standard Galilean progression of the marriage process. For the Son of God to 'take' the virgins there has to have been a contract. And there was, the New Covenant. And so, if these are truly suppose to represent brides, then the 5 would have had to have been divorced under deut 24. Same as the situation with Joseph and Mary at one point.

In any event, what you are describing actually takes away from the idea that this was a wedding, and therefore what I am trying to say that even the parable of the 10 virgins is not a good display of polygamy in the NT.



That's an assumption as well.

The idea that the parable of the 10 virgins in the NT to explain polygamy is a stretch. There has to be more, like there is in the OT.
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There is no contract requirement for marriage anywhere in scripture, none and they’re not anywhere. They are not there nor are they anywhere.
 
Tobit 7:14
Raguel asked his wife to bring him a blank scroll so that he could write out the marriage contract. Edna brought him the scroll, and Raguel wrote out the agreement, saying that Sarah was given to Tobias according to the teachings in the Law of Moses.

Let the battle begin.
 
Evo said:
Hi

I have read somewhere someone saying Israel and Judah will be again one.
Then the nation And 12 tribes of Israel will be one.

Thus one spouse of God.

God not a polygamist

Does it make sense?
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I had a discussion with someone from my church orchestra, of which I had been a part, before my expulsion. This was about a year ago, and he said the same thing. After I had some time to reflect on it, I ended up in a huge back and forth discussion with him on email. I told him that a man's wives become one in him, just as Jew and Gentile become one in Christ (Eph 2:14), and likewise Judah and Israel will become one in the Father. Jesus did after all say that they are no longer two, but one flesh. My wife and I are not two, but one, and should God bless me with a second wife one day, we also will become one.
 
FollowingHim said:
I don't see any purpose in having a discussion with somebody who is approaching it as a battle. Are you interested in discussing this, or fighting over it? I had a load I was intending to say, but then I got to that line and I thought it didn't seem worth my time. Please clarify.
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The response was in line with the joking that zec and I were doing in regards to what's in the bible and what's not. I brought up a verse not in the Protestant bible and expected the normal pushback.

Relax, I am here to try and join in the group and I have no intentions of being led into discussion that turns out bad for me.

And I would like to hear what you have to say, I have yet to find a reasonable explanation for the NT objection to polygamy.
 
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Cap said:
Can you please provide that NT scripture. And, no I have no interest in going to some book or paper you have written.
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There is no such thing as 'New Testament' and 'Old Testament.' That great white wall of a dividing page in your Bible needs to be torn out. There is only ONE book with one message. God didn't change in 'intertestamental' period.

Therefore, you don't need a 'NT' verse if it says it left of the great white wall, it doesn't need to be restated in the 'NT' to still be valid.
 
PeteR said:
There is no such thing as 'New Testament' and 'Old Testament.' That great white wall of a dividing page in your Bible needs to be torn out. There is only ONE book with one message. God didn't change in 'intertestamental' period.

Therefore, you don't need a 'NT' verse if it says it left of the great white wall, it doesn't need to be restated in the 'NT' to still be valid.
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I completely and wholeheartedly disagree with this statement.
 
Cap said:
since we can not establish something on just one reference in God's Word, where is another reference to polygamy in the NT?
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Because nothing in the front of the book has changed, it need not be restated in the back. But, knowing the front reveals treasures in the back. Paul gave several solid poly instructions. Two that come to mind are 1 Corinthians 7 and 1 Timothy 5.
 
PeteR said:
Because nothing in the front of the book has changed, it need not be restated in the back. But, knowing the front reveals treasures in the back. Paul gave several solid poly instructions. Two that come to mind are 1 Corinthians 7 and 1 Timothy 5.
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Please specify what you are referring to in each of the chapters you presented. There is a lot in each one dealing on different subject matter and the reference to polygamy is not apparent.
 
Frank S said:
Not being ready on time is simply not grounds for divorce.
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Agreed, it would simply postpone the next act.

Just because it’s not widely mentioned in the last part of the book cannot be taken as proof that it stopped.
For some strange reason, men pissing against the wall isn’t mentioned either, but it appears a full half-dozen times in the earlier section. Nothing changed about our plumbing that I am aware of.
 
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