Explain how it doesn't. More than one is necessary to express patriarchy? How so?
No, it's not. I didn't say that, and neither did Tom.
What I said that you were asking about was:
Again, a specific monogamous marriage isn't necessarily non-patriarchal or an inferior kind of patriarchy per se. And a specific plural family may not be all that patriarchal, or may even be anti-patriarchal.
It is the belief that polygamy is impermissible that is anti-patriarchal, or at minimum a restraint or limitation of patriarchy. It's not the only such belief.
In the first paragraph, I specifically disassociate
de facto polygamy from
de facto patriarchy. In the second paragraph, I state what the real issue is.
I was responding to your comparison of marriage and parenthood. Marriage and parenthood are descriptions of relational states. As you say it takes at least one marriage to be 'married' and it takes at least one child to be a 'parent', and you can grow your family from there as you please. Unless there's a law against that.
Patriarchy is a
system of rule that applies to women and children alike in the home, and it applies to the relations between adult males in society. "The protector/provider is in charge; everybody else cooperates/submits/obeys/whatever." The spectrum there floats a bit in all healthy patriarchal relationships, depending on the context of the decision being made, but final authority rests with the protector-provider. Unless it doesn't.
Monogamous husbands can be solid patriarchs (that is, actually ru; plural husbands can be crappy patriarchs or anti-patriarchal (see paragraph 2, post 154731). Meanwhile, you don't even have to be married
to
affirm the
legitimacy of patriarchy (remember those words).
Ive argued this same point in this thread, but "belief" and "permissibility" was not part of the O.P. IIRC.
Polygyny and patriarchy seemed to be inextricably linked from that book quote. That was the origin of the positions taken here, wasn't it?
Tom and I are using different words to say the same thing. I think. We'll look at that in a minute.
Patriarchy can be expressed in monogamy or polygyny. You must have one (monogamy) to have it, but you don't need the other (polygyny) to sustain it. I agree that prohibitions against it limit the expression of it, but it doesn't eliminate it. . . . Maybe it's our male pride, but we monogamists might be balking at the premise as a challenge to our manhood or patriarchal positions.
We're converging (we usually do eventually). I'm going to take one last look at the OP; see what you think.
Tom Shipley said:
If polygamy (polygyny) is a logical affirmation of male headship, then the denial of the legitimacy of polygyny constitutes a denial of the legitimacy of patriarchy. Moreover, if polygyny affirms male headship, then male headship must entail the legitimacy of polygyny. Polygyny is one of the “modes” by which the law of patriarchy is expressed and manifested.
With respect to everybody who contributed above, the people who tried to logic out Tom's statement all got it wrong. mystic corrected himself; I don't recall that anyone else did. I'm going to take a different approach and just try to read through Tom's statement one phrase at a time.
"If polygamy (polygyny) is a logical
affirmation of male headship..."
Well, is it? Does polygyny
affirm male headship? [affirmation: confirmation of anything established; ratification; as, the
affirmation of a law] In law, an affirmation is what you make when you testify in court but have religious reasons to not want to swear an oath. I hold it to be self-evident that polygyny confirms the male headship established by God, ratifies the law of God, and testifies to the truth of male headship. Anyone want to argue contra?
"...then the denial of the legitimacy of polygyny constitutes a denial of the legitimacy of patriarchy."
Tom never creates an equivalence between polygyny and patriarchy. For that matter, he never creates a logical equivalence or logical inference between the legitimacy of polygyny and the legitimacy of patriarchy (or the denials thereof). He says that a denial of the legitimacy of polygyny
constitutes a denial of the legitimacy of patriarchy. [constitute: to cause to stand; to establish] [establish: to make stable or firm]. "An assault on the king's soldier's is the same as an assault on the king himself." It's not
an assault on the king himself, but it's "the same as". "We hold these truths to be self-evident...." Not these truths
are self-evident, but we "hold" (consider, believe) them to be. The difference is subtle but matters.
Here's St. Augustine (many of y'all have already seen this): "For by a secret law of nature, things that stand chief love to be singular; but things that are subject are set under, not only one under one, but, if the system of nature or society allow, even several under one, not without becoming beauty. For neither hath one slave so several masters, in the way that several slaves have one master. Thus we read not that any of the holy women served two or more living husbands; but we read that many females served one husband, when the social state of the nation allowed it, and the purpose of the time persuaded it: for neither is it contrary to the nature of marriage. For several females can conceive from one man: but one female cannot from several men (such is the power of things principal) as many souls are rightly made subject to one God."
That discussion has been beat to death above: the one-to-many relationship of things "chief" and things "subject". Nobody questions the right of an employer to have zero, one, or many employees; on what ground is the right of a husband to have more than one wife questioned? Questioning that right is the problem Tom is addressing.
Augustine-speak: If the fact of having more than one slave is a logical confirmation or ratification of the law of slavery (the right to own people), then the denial of the legitimacy of having more than one slave firms up and stabilizes a denial of the legitimacy of slavery itself. "You can have one slave but no more than one slave" raises some serious questions about how the concept of the relationship is changing
qualitatively as well as quantitatively, because the 'natural law' of one-to-many in a chief-subject relationship is being violated.
20th-century-speak, arguments seen above: If having more than one employee supports the authority of the owner to run his company the way he sees fit, then a denial of the legitimacy of having more than one employee brings into question the actual rights of the owner of the business to run and grow his business as he sees fit.
andrew-speak: If the idea of some men somewhere having more than one wife bothers you, then whatever you mean by the word "patriarchy", it's not the same as what I mean when I use that word, and I would argue that it's not what that word has meant historically to the people who used it.
And again, none of this is meant in any way to challenge or demean specific monogamous marriages. It's not 'monogamy' that is the issue. It's the 'denial of the legitimacy of polygyny' that is the issue.
And we can go around this mountain as many times as we have the stamina for, but ultimately, my contention will be that if we are trapped in an "is not, is too" loop, then it's because we mean different things when we use the word patriarchy. I'm with Tom: Full-blown patriarchy necessarily entails the acceptance of the legitimacy of polygyny; it is a logical consequence of the one-to-many potential of any chief-subject relationship. And the denial of the legitimacy of polygyny constitutes an indirect attack on patriarchy and biblical male headship.
Neither monogamy-in-fact nor celibacy constitutes an attack on headship
per se, just the formal denial of the
legitimacy (lawfulness) of the practice of polygyny. (Remember, in the context of Tom's book, "lawfulness" is a reference to
biblical law (see title of book). He doesn't mean right, good, wise, culturally acceptable, legal in your state, or anything else other than "according to the law of God as recorded in the scriptures".)
If we are going to keep going around this circle, I would like someone who disagrees with me to help me understand your point. On what ground do you say that polygyny is illegitimate?
Show me how you can do that without calling biblical headship into question.
Finally, anecdotally, I have to mention that for a lot of people, getting their heads around polygyny-in-theory has changed the way they look at headship in particular and the male/female relationship generally, and actually living in polygyny has
radically changed the way they understand headship and the relationship (whether male or female). Just sayin....