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One of the options with a rebellious wife was to send her back to her parents for reeducation. It wasn’t a divorce. The intention was for her to return with her attitude adjusted.
That is not what Yeshua was speaking of.
He was calling out the practice of kicking a wife out without giving her a bill of divorcement. You can see this in the two different Greek words used in vs 31 which the King Jim translates correctly using the proper concept for each word.
Translations that use divorce in both cases are obviously messed up. (“messed up” is my attempt to be generous)
That is not what Yeshua was speaking of.
He was calling out the practice of kicking a wife out without giving her a bill of divorcement. You can see this in the two different Greek words used in vs 31 which the King Jim translates correctly using the proper concept for each word.
Translations that use divorce in both cases are obviously messed up. (“messed up” is my attempt to be generous)
If I may put in my two cents worth. In reading the context of Mathew 5:31-32 and Deut. 24:1-2, it involves finding "fornication" or "uncleanness". It was something that has or is being hid from the the husband until he found out. He is being lied to. Therefore it was a condition of the heart in the wife that was wrong. It was something done in secret. In both instances, a divorce was granted. However in today's world, if the woman who is divorced wants to come under the protection, provision, and blessing of having a husband, and hides nothing, wouldn't it be up to the man to "redeem" her, per say, just as Messiah has redeemed us? Understanding she has asked for forgiveness and turned back to the Father and her walk with Him according to His Word.
I admit I am still trying to figure this out as a divorced single father so I hope to find a better understanding as well. I did not want to be divorced and to this day my ex doesn't have a reason why she left other than that's what she wanted and we are still on good terms. I said all that for a little back ground to my comment.
I admit I am still trying to figure this out as a divorced single father so I hope to find a better understanding as well. I did not want to be divorced and to this day my ex doesn't have a reason why she left other than that's what she wanted and we are still on good terms. I said all that for a little back ground to my comment.
You’re allowed to remarry in your situation.
The part that you are ignoring is that the two verses in Mathew are not about divorce.
They are about being put out, but not fully divorced.
I’m not following you, why is he prohibited?
He’s not. He’s allowed to remarry in his situation. The man usually is unless he put a woman unlawfully right?
Oh
Hmmm, you are saying that if he puts a wife out without a writing of divorce, he cannot remarry?
I understand that but it refers to fornication and I used it as an example of keeping something hid.
True, it does mention fornication. But it specifies that it is not about fornication. Which, as you have pointed out, includes a lot more than just adultery.
So rereading the two verses, it’s almost like it is saying:
“You need to give her a writing of divorce if the reason that you are sending her out doesn’t include fornication, but if it does there is no need for a writing of divorce, just tell her to go.”
Even in my book, that’s pretty radical, but that appears to be the plain reading.
Btw: For anyone not looking up the words that are being used in vs 32, divorce is not the correct translation. The Greek word is the same as used in vs 31 meaning put away. Put away without a writing of divorce.
Maybe it’s if he puts her out for reasons other than porneia? I’m confused now.
@steve, what happened to your Nazarite vow!
That was when I was much younger
I have read thru the previous discussions and now ask a very pertinent queston: At what point does the adultery STOP being adultery? Is it perpetual and thus the divorced woman is always "hand-off"? That would seem to be an awful situation for any believing woman. OR... is it the former husband that is now in perpetual adultery seeing he CAUSED the divorce. I am reminded of an old college friend who used to be catholic and having gone to confessional he said, "Hot Dog! lets go sin some more!"
Look to David’s situation. He was not continuously in adultery because after he stole Uriah’s wife, had him killed, she was David’s wife. The sin had been committed. He was punished. He was not punished for keeping her. And her surviving son went on to be part of a great lineage.
Yes totally agree, and you might also keep in mind the likes of Rahab; a former prostitute, and some from the Corinthian assembly who had quite immoral backgrounds (see 1 Cor. 6:10-11). Who someone was, in one situation, can be quite different from who they become in Christ.
Under which situation? A woman who leaves her man must be celibate until he dies. So it can be permanent.
Some of your verbiage suggests you still haven’t completely shaken all of the Roman influences.
A man can’t “cause” a divorce. There is only one scenario that can be described as a divorce; a man who has found uncleaness in his woman and has given her a certificate of divorce.
We have gone round and round about if a woman can remarry after leaving for inprovidence. I say no. Others say yes. That might even be a majority opinion.
The point is that “marriage”, adultery and divorce are deadly serious issues that are a testament to the nature of God and our relationship to him. We can very easily and literally blaspheme through our approach to these things.
Fortunately His yoke is easy and His burden is light, there are ways to fix eligibility issues that exist. But it requires humility and determination.