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Meat One flesh is “marriage” and here’s why.

"Marrying a divorced woman" Could just as easily be unpacked as the act of taking in, having sex with, and altogether "taking her as your own" a woman with who belongs to another man (married) who has been sent away, even with a GET that was for "burnt toast" and thus not a valid reason for divorce, would be "marrying" or uniting or taking to yourself a married woman, so he and she would be committing adultery.
I don't think it matters whether the get is for a valid reason or not - if she's divorced, she's divorced, and she's free to remarry. If she can have a get, yet still be married, that's just messy. It means any potential future husband must analyse the exact reasons for the divorce and work out for himself whether he would likewise think divorce was valid in those circumstances.

If the divorce was unjustified, then the first husband will bear the guilt for that. But she's still divorced and free to remarry.
 
I don't think it matters whether the get is for a valid reason or not - if she's divorced, she's divorced, and she's free to remarry. If she can have a get, yet still be married, that's just messy. It means any potential future husband must analyse the exact reasons for the divorce and work out for himself whether he would likewise think divorce was valid in those circumstances.

If the divorce was unjustified, then the first husband will bear the guilt for that. But she's still divorced and free to remarry.

Divorce does not free a woman to remarry unless a Non-Believing man leaves her.
Any woman who was married to a Believing man is stuck under that till he is dead and then she is free to remarry.

For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.
 
Divorce does not free a woman to remarry unless a Non-Believing man leaves her.
Any woman who was married to a Believing man is stuck under that till he is dead and then she is free to remarry.

For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.
You need to read Deuteronomy 24:1-4.
 
You need to read Deuteronomy 24:1-4.

Deuteronomy 24:1-4

24 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.

2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;

4 Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the Lord: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the Lord thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

In that case I believe this did away with that. I believe that is why I give so much mercy on my Wives because I know it would be a very hard burden to carry to never have sex again. I their husband can and will overlook their sins and with wide arms welcome my lost sheep wiping away their stains for when our Savior Comes He will do the same for us.

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
 
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
What Jesus said there is not in disagreement with what Moses said. In Deuteronomy 24:1, divorce is allowed if the husband finds "some uncleanness" in his wife. The word "uncleanness" is the Hebrew "erva", which means "nudity, literally (especially the pudenda) or figuratively". In other words it refers most directly to sexual uncleanness. So a husband was permitted to divorce his wife if he found her guilty of a sexual sin.

Jesus also said a husband could divorce his wife if she was guilty of a sexual sin (specifically adultery). This isn't actually very different from what Moses said.

Jesus is not doing away with Moses' words. He is simply explaining them, maybe tweaking them slightly, but certainly not completely contradicting them.
 
Does sex with another man automatically destroy the marriage? Or is it just a permissible reason to divorce?

If sex with another man automatically destroyed the marriage, then if your wife gets raped she's no longer your wife, and you've got no say in the matter, she's now the wife of another man - and you can't take her back either according to Torah.
Do you have any scripture to back any of that up? Where does the Torah say you can’t take back a raped wife? Or even an adulterous one? You can’t take back a ice you put away and then who went to another man. Is this where you’re getting confused?
 
As I said in an earlier post, the first part of the passage gives the exception of fornication, under which a get isn’t even needed because she has already committed adultery.

Yeshuah said that Moses allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.
1). Moses didn’t write law, so I think that this is just shorthand for “the law that you received from Moses after his interaction with Yah”.
2). We don’t know what the hardness of heart was. It usually assumed that he is so hard-hearted that he might divorce her for burning the toast. But what if his hoh was that he became a wine drinker that didn’t support his family? (Yes, a woman couldn’t divorce him, but the elders could require him to give her a get in cases of abuse)
But alternately, what if the hoh was hers? Didn’t do her job and didn’t care?

We aren’t given specifics, but you cannot make doctrine from silence.
Moses said that divorce was allowed.
Don’t forget that Yah divorced Israel for cause.
I suspect that Yeshua was referring to Moses the same way the crowd he was talking to (pharisees) reffered to Moses... It is the oral traditions that had been built up surrounding the Torah that he was referring to... Also its worth investigating the difference between "put away" and "divorce" most English translations conflate the two but the original languages make a distinction...

Just my thoughts not trying to get into an argument my second day back. 😉
 
What Jesus said there is not in disagreement with what Moses said. In Deuteronomy 24:1, divorce is allowed if the husband finds "some uncleanness" in his wife. The word "uncleanness" is the Hebrew "erva", which means "nudity, literally (especially the pudenda) or figuratively". In other words it refers most directly to sexual uncleanness. So a husband was permitted to divorce his wife if he found her guilty of a sexual sin.

Jesus also said a husband could divorce his wife if she was guilty of a sexual sin (specifically adultery). This isn't actually very different from what Moses said.

Jesus is not doing away with Moses' words. He is simply explaining them, maybe tweaking them slightly, but certainly not completely contradicting them.

24 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.

2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.


3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;

4 Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the Lord: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the Lord thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.




I read this as saying "When it comes to pass The Wife finds no Favour in The Husbands Eyes because of his wife's uncleanness in his Wife he can write a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, but if she marriages again Her First Husband can not take her as a Wife again as it is an abomination before the Lord: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the Lord thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

(It means she has shown her body)



Old Testament (Hebrew) for "uncleanness"
H2930טָמֵאṭāmē'unclean, defile, pollute, uncleanness, utterly
H2932טָמְאָהṭām'âuncleanness, filthiness, unclean
H5079נִדָּהnidâseparation, put apart, filthiness, flowers, far, set apart, menstruous, removed, unclean thing, unclean, uncleanness, menstruous woman, removed woman
H6172עֶרְוָהʿervânakedness, nakedness, shame, unclean, uncleanness
H7137קָרֶהqārêuncleanness that chanceth
Strongs # GreekTransliteratedEnglish Equivalent
New Testament (Greek) for "uncleanness"
G167ἀκαθαρσίαakatharsiauncleanness
G3394μιασμόςmiasmosuncleanness
  1. nakedness, nudity, shame, pudenda
    1. pudenda (implying shameful exposure)
    2. nakedness of a thing, indecency, improper behaviour
    3. exposed, undefended (fig.)

עֶרְוָה ʻervâh, er-vaw'; from H6168; nudity, literally (especially the pudenda) or figuratively (disgrace, blemish):—nakedness, shame, unclean(-ness).

עֶרְוָה 54 noun feminine nakedness, pudenda; — absolute ע׳ Exodus 28:42; Leviticus 18:6; usually construct עֶרְוַת Genesis 9:22 +, suffix עֶרְוָֽֽֽתְךָ Exodus 20:23 (Ginsb), Leviticus 18:10; עֶרְוָתֵךְ Isaiah 47:3 +; ת֯וֺ Leviticus 20:17, תָ֯הּ Leviticus 18:7 +; suffix 3rd person feminine plural עֶרְוָתָן Leviticus 18:9; Leviticus 18:10; —
1. pudenda, of man רָאָה ע׳ implying shameful exposure Genesis 9:22, 23 (J); mostly of woman: figurative of Jerusalem (with רָאָה) Lamentations 1:3; Ezekiel 16:37; usually with ׃ נלה literal תִּגָּלֶה ע׳ i.e. be exposed to view Exodus 20:23 (Ginsb; van d. H. Exodus 20:26; E), so, as shameful punishment, figurative of Egypt Isaiah 20:4 (gloss according to Du Che Di-Kit), Babylonian Isaiah 47:3, of Jerusalem Ezekiel 16:37; Ezekiel 23:10, 29 (עֶרְוַת זְנוּנַיִךְ; all three object of active verb); chiefly euphemism for cohabitation, גִּלָּה ע׳ Leviticus 18:6 + (see גלה Pi. 1 a; figurative of Jerusalem (verb passive) Ezekiel 16:36; רָאָה ע׳ in same meaning Leviticus 20:17 (twice in verse) (H; of both sexes); ע׳ also Leviticus 18:8, 10, 16 (H); כִּסָּה ע׳ cover nakedness Genesis 9:23 (J), Exodus 28:42 (P; בְּשַׂר ע׳), Hosea 2:11 (figurative of Israel), Ezekiel 16:8 (of Jerusalem); reviling words are אִמֶּ֑ךָ לְבשֶׁת ע׳ 1 Samuel 20:30 (compare DoughtyArab. Deserta i. 269).
2. עֶרְוַת דָּבָר nakedness of a thing, i.e. probably indecency, improper behaviour Deuteronomy 23:15; Deuteronomy 24:1 (see Dr).
3. figurative הָאָרֶץ ע׳ Genesis 42:9, 12 (E), i.e. its exposed, undefended parts (Arabic
bdb078901
).
Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, Unabridged, Electronic Database.
Copyright © 2002, 2003, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc.
All rights reserved. Used by permission. BibleSoft.com

BLB Scripture Index of Brown-Driver-Briggs​

Genesis
9:22; 9:22; 9:23; 9:23; 42:9; 42:12
Exodus
20:23; 20:23; 20:26; 28:42; 28:42
Leviticus
18:6; 18:6; 18:7; 18:8; 18:9; 18:10; 18:10; 18:10; 18:16; 20:17; 20:17
Deuteronomy
23:15; 24:1
1 Samuel
20:30
Isaiah
20:4; 47:3; 47:3
Lamentations
1:3
Ezekiel
16:8; 16:36; 16:37; 16:37; 23:10; 23:29
Hosea
 
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I don't think it matters whether the get is for a valid reason or not - if she's divorced, she's divorced, and she's free to remarry. If she can have a get, yet still be married, that's just messy. It means any potential future husband must analyse the exact reasons for the divorce and work out for himself whether he would likewise think divorce was valid in those circumstances.

If the divorce was unjustified, then the first husband will bear the guilt for that. But she's still divorced and free to remarry.

Is the messiness of their distorting the law not precisely what Jesus was addressing?

If Torah says a man can only divorce for finding indecency, and Jesus says a man can only divorce for sexual immorality, that is Jesus in alignment with Moses/Torah. It was the men believing "any reason at all" made a valid divorce/GET that were in error. Jesus corrects them, on the law, and on the morality of it, while not contradicting Torah, and showing them what marriage is intended to be both in the joining and the dissolution of it, not a flippant thing that should be taken lightly.

You see that in the response from his disciples which is "His disciples said to Him, “If this is the case between a man and his wife, it is better not to marry.”

Why do you presuppose she was "free to remarry" if she was put away with a GET that says "burnt toast", which is not a lawful reason for divorce, just because it's messy? Is that not the same problem we deal with today? If a man divorces his wife and gets a state issued divorce decree, while she is "free to remarry" by the state, is she really truly released from that bind to her husband in God's eyes?

Seems to me the whole correction from Jesus was just how much of a mess they had made marriage and divorce by distorting the law. Rampant adultery (in a lot of cases probably completely oblivious to it) because of many invalid divorces.
 
Do you have any scripture to back any of that up? Where does the Torah say you can’t take back a raped wife? Or even an adulterous one? You can’t take back a ice you put away and then who went to another man. Is this where you’re getting confused?
I don't believe any of that, I was pointing out an error with your post that I was quoting.
 
Is the messiness of their distorting the law not precisely what Jesus was addressing?

If Torah says a man can only divorce for finding indecency, and Jesus says a man can only divorce for sexual immorality, that is Jesus in alignment with Moses/Torah. It was the men believing "any reason at all" made a valid divorce/GET that were in error. Jesus corrects them, on the law, and on the morality of it, while not contradicting Torah, and showing them what marriage is intended to be both in the joining and the dissolution of it, not a flippant thing that should be taken lightly.

You see that in the response from his disciples which is "His disciples said to Him, “If this is the case between a man and his wife, it is better not to marry.”
I agree.
Why do you presuppose she was "free to remarry" if she was put away with a GET that says "burnt toast", which is not a lawful reason for divorce, just because it's messy? Is that not the same problem we deal with today? If a man divorces his wife and gets a state issued divorce decree, while she is "free to remarry" by the state, is she really truly released from that bind to her husband in God's eyes?
Because that's what it says in Deuteronomy 24:2.

The purpose of the paperwork is so she can show a future husband that she is available, no other man has a competing claim. It is irrelevant whether that paperwork is issued privately by her husband, or if he uses the government process to get their paperwork - she has a piece of paper that shows he no longer claims her, and she is free.

If that paper may be invalid - if her former husband may have released her, but she still be not free to remarry because of a technicality - then she is stuck in limbo. She cannot go back to her former husband (he's made very clear he doesn't want her), but nor can she remarry (because the paper is invalid), so she is condemned to singleness. This is not fair on the woman, especially if she did nothing to deserve it.

I think the idea that the divorce is valid only if the reason is valid is being over-legalistic.
Seems to me the whole correction from Jesus was just how much of a mess they had made marriage and divorce by distorting the law. Rampant adultery (in a lot of cases probably completely oblivious to it) because of many invalid divorces.
Absolutely. Rampant divorce and remarriage was a serious problem of monogamous greco-roman culture (like our own), which was strongly encroaching into their society. Jesus was speaking against it, and telling the men not to divorce their wives.

I don't think it is valid to read a punishment of the wives into this though - and effectively forcing those women who have been abandoned unjustly to remain single for the rest of their lives is a punishment of the victim.
 
Sex with a married woman is adultery. That’s laid out in scripture. I’m sure how this would relate to the forming of the marriage. It’s the destruction of the marriage. Sex with a man formed it, sex with another man destroyed it. Seems simple enough.

I understand sex with a married woman is adultery, no disagreements there. The rest of it is unconvincing due to the obvious issues with situations like Bathsheba still belonging to Uriah after David went into her. '

So either marriage doesn't mean what we are assuming it means, or sex cannot make and break a marriage simultaneously.
 
I agree.

Because that's what it says in Deuteronomy 24:2.

The purpose of the paperwork is so she can show a future husband that she is available, no other man has a competing claim. It is irrelevant whether that paperwork is issued privately by her husband, or if he uses the government process to get their paperwork - she has a piece of paper that shows he no longer claims her, and she is free.

If that paper may be invalid - if her former husband may have released her, but she still be not free to remarry because of a technicality - then she is stuck in limbo. She cannot go back to her former husband (he's made very clear he doesn't want her), but nor can she remarry (because the paper is invalid), so she is condemned to singleness. This is not fair on the woman, especially if she did nothing to deserve it.
You're all over the place here, if you look objectively at you position. Fairness to the women who were sent away unjustifiably is not the issue here, the law is. Women put in a bad spot because of distortion of the law is not the issue, the distortion of the law is. This is precisely what Jesus is addressing. He doesn't tell them to continue as is because a lot of women would be in a bad spot otherwise, he corrects them on the law, their interpretation of it, misuse of that interpretation, and then ultimately the morality of the entire thing, so that it stops happening.

I think the idea that the divorce is valid only if the reason is valid is being over-legalistic.

Absolutely. Rampant divorce and remarriage was a serious problem of monogamous greco-roman culture (like our own), which was strongly encroaching into their society. Jesus was speaking against it, and telling the men not to divorce their wives.
Deut 24:2 does not say that a man can send away or divorce a woman for any reason at all. There's a specific reason given that is needed for it to be lawful and binding. This is what Jesus makes clear as well. Any man who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another commits adultery against her. He seems addressing serial monogamy via invalid divorces causing rampant adultery.

If I'm being over-legalistic, so be it, are we trying to understand the law as it's written and intended or are we more concerned about perceived fairness to women due to men misinterpreting the law?

If men only divorced and wrote a GET for women because of sexual immorality, would there be any women in limbo? No. They would all have valid GET's, or be stoned to death. Any man who wanted to take in a divorced woman who was guilty of sexual immorality, that's his choice, she's a free woman in God's eyes and any man's according to the law.

If a woman approached me and showed interest in me, told me she was married once, but had been put away and she has a GET, I'd ask to see the GET, and if it said anything other than some sexual immorality as the reason, my response based on what the law says, would be, you should seek reconciliation with your husband. You are still bound (In God's law, not man's) to your husband, that is not a valid reason for a GET, so it's not a valid GET, whether your husband or you think it is or not is irrelevant.

If the husband simply refused to take her back, the next argument then becomes, I suppose I can take her in, but the guilt of her adultery would be on him for sending her away without a lawful reason and refusing to provide for her as he is required by law, not her or me, based on what it seems Jesus is saying.

I don't think it is valid to read a punishment of the wives into this though - and effectively forcing those women who have been abandoned unjustly to remain single for the rest of their lives is a punishment of the victim.

I'm not trying to punish the wives, I'm trying to understand the law. If men distorted the law and women are hurt by it, that doesn't change the law or it's intent. You're working backwards to try to address the problem of abandoned women in limbo and then ignoring the law to do so.

I'm saying yes there would be some women in limbo, and that sucks, but the law is the law, and we are either going to teach it properly so that situation no longer continues to happen, or we will just keep diluting the law to try and make everything "fair" for all those who are in a bad spot due to distortion or dilution of the law, so then the law doesn't matter at all really does it?

If that paper may be invalid - if her former husband may have released her, but she still be not free to remarry because of a technicality - then she is stuck in limbo
It's not a "technicality", it's that a GET was written and she was sent away for what is not a lawful reason. It's an invalid divorce. You are putting man's interpretation of the law and their usage of that distorting of it above the law itself. Saying that well she should be "free" merely because she had a "Get" even if it was not for a valid reason. Because it's not "fair" to her.

Does that not put man's distorted interpretation of God's law above God? If a woman is still bound to her husband in God's eyes, because the conditions for separation of that union weren't met, but she has a piece of paper that says she's "free" ... is she really free? I don't know how that's possible without undermining God and His law.
 
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I don't think I am distorting the law. I think it is perfectly reasonable to read the law in this way. I'm not trying to twist it to fit an emotive argument. I'm just trying to read it consistent with the principle that people bear responsibility for their own sin (Ezekiel 18), and should not be punished for the sin of another.
 
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David didn’t agree with the idea that sex with another man destroyed his marriage.
When David was popular with King Saul, he gave David his daughter, Michal. When David was out of favor, the King gave her to another man.
When David came into power he took her back.
Yah said that David did what was right in everything except for Bathsheba.
 
I don't think I am ignoring the law. I think it is perfectly reasonable to read the law in this way. I'm not trying to twist it to fit an emotive argument. I'm just trying to read it consistent with the principle that people bear responsibility for their own sin (Ezekiel 18), and should not be punished for the sin of another.

The Pharisees also thought it was perfectly reasonable for them to read the law in a way that allowed them to divorce their wives for any reason at all, and believed no guilt was on them for doing it.

I agree people should bear the guilt of their own sin:

In the case of the woman sent away for burnt toast, and her shacking up with another man, the guilt of that adultery is on the man who unlawfully sent her away and wouldn't take her back and fulfill his duty, abandoning or dealing treacherously with his wife, not on her. One could not place guilt on the man who showed her mercy when the man who should have refused to.

If a woman sends herself away because she just doesn't like her husband anymore, she should reconcile with him, if she shacks up with another man, the adultery is on her and that man (he could verify if she had a proper GET).

If a woman commits an act of sexual immorality, is sent away with a valid GET rather than stoned, the guilt of her sexual immorality is on her. If no one will take her in due to that, that's on her. If someone decides to show mercy or favor to her and take her in, there is no guilt on him, she is not bound.

What am I missing, because I don't claim to have it all figured out, I want to fill all the holes in all of this so that we can really understand, I don't care about being right, I'd rather be wrong and learn.
 
Bingo! So there IS a difference in having some sort of agreement in existence? What if someone had a 1 year agreement with his woman? After that maybe a renewal. Does it always have to be "for life"? (hope this doesnt pop a cork somewhere) And what about the non-legal concubine-woman-wife that happens to be the church secretary-unmarried to anybody else for sure? Are they married or not? Is that legitimately an "affair" or secret poly marriage? I have seen alot of pastors repenting of their masculinity- read that horn-dog chase after secretary thing. "I am so sorry for being a defective pastor and having a sex drive, I promise it wont happen again...." PuhLeeeeze!
The scenario that you present of having a temporary marriage is actually being practiced in Islam now, it is called mutah or nikah, and it is in direct opposition to the word of YAH, just as the law of bigamy is within christendom that governs the statutes within marriage.

It's like a pincer movement designed to ensnare as many men as possible via the west and via the east

As to the "non-legal" "concubine-woman-wife" a concubine IS a "wife" she just has responsibilities that prevent her from helping/supporting her husband fully in his work or business or family.

They are not married if the man has not laid out the terms of the union, if she has not agreed to be his woman under the covenant conditions he has laid out, including or excluding food & clothing then it is NOT a marriage they have simply become one flesh.

The word or the idea of "affair" as we understand in Western culture, does not appear in scripture.

Using the terms given by scripture, whoremongering and whoredoms.
Whoremongers create whores a woman cannot become a whore without a man or men who abide by the laws of this world that legally mandate sex without commitment or consequence.

The problem is not our sex drive it is being led by our little head and not our big head in submission to our true head messiYAH YAHushuWaH
 
In the case of the woman sent away for burnt toast, and her shacking up with another man, the guilt of that adultery is on the man who unlawfully sent her away and wouldn't take her back and fulfill his duty, abandoning or dealing treacherously with his wife, not on her. One could not place guilt on the man who showed her mercy when the man who should have refused to.
That is exactly what I am saying. In this situation, the man sent her away for an invalid reason - but the divorce is still valid, so she can remarry. There is no guilt attributed to her, or to her new husband. The guilt is solely on the original husband who divorced her unjustly.

We might be using different words to describe that. But it seems we are trying to describe the same end result.
 
That is exactly what I am saying. In this situation, the man sent her away for an invalid reason - but the divorce is still valid, so she can remarry. There is no guilt attributed to her, or to her new husband. The guilt is solely on the original husband who divorced her unjustly.

We might be using different words to describe that. But it seems we are trying to describe the same end result.

I hear ya, well yeah in that case we seem to be in alignment, I understood you as saying that even a GET/divorce for unlawful reasons was a valid and binding divorce in God's eyes, in which case, there wouldn't be guilt to be laid on anyone, it could not be adultery on her or against her if she was properly released from her husband.
 
If a woman approached me and showed interest in me, told me she was married once, but had been put away and she has a GET, I'd ask to see the GET, and if it said anything other than some sexual immorality as the reason, my response based on what the law says, would be, you should seek reconciliation with your husband. You are still bound (In God's law, not man's) to your husband, that is not a valid reason for a GET, so it's not a valid GET, whether your husband or you think it is or not is irrelevant.

If the husband simply refused to take her back, the next argument then becomes, I suppose I can take her in, but the guilt of her adultery would be on him for sending her away without a lawful reason and refusing to provide for her as he is required by law, not her or me, based on what it seems Jesus is saying.

I believe that verse is saying that the only form of divorce is if you wife cheats (sex, nudity porn and maybe what she wears), but even that no longers allows her to be free to marry again till her One and Only Husband Dies or Both Her and her So called New Husband is living in Sin of Adultery). This is a punishment and could last for the rest of her life, her cheating would be an easy out so she could marriage again. Like King David was in sin till Bathsheba Husband had die. of course King David killed her Husband and because of that their first child died. But once he was died and they paid for that sin they because Husband and Wife but not in till after.
My Concubine is my Concubine because she can't be a Wife due to her Non-Believing ex-husband/boyfriend who she had a child with.
And just having a child would make her a Concubine as well.

Any Woman who is given a GET even if she cheats can not ever remarry till her husband is dead or they will not enter in to Heaven.
 
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