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"Marriages" in Matthew

NickF

NickF

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In Matthew 22 Jesus gives a parable about "a certain King which makes marriages for his son". And He then goes on in chapter 25 to give another parable, this time illustrating Himself being betrothed to 10 virgins, 5 wise and 5 foolish. Only 5 of them make it in to the "marriages" where the door is shut.

The Greek word for "marriage feast, marriage, wedding - Gamos" is the masculine accusative plural 6 times. Why would Jesus, THE WORD use the wrong form of this word and say it was a plural number of marriages in both of these parables if marriage to more than one woman concurrently was anything other than good? Does God illustrate Himself as being a sinner? Can he even do so considering by definition, He IS righteousness? I submit He cannot sin, and cannot even portray Himself as being less than perfect. Because He is Truth, and He IS perfect by definition.

If Jesus himself used a plural word to describe how many marriages he was lined up for, then being Christlike includes plural marriage by necessity.


γάμους — 6x G1062 γάμος
Showing Results For:
TR
N-APM
Occurrences:6 times in 6 verses
Speech:Noun
Parsing:Accusative Plural Masculine

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Mat 22:2 - The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage (marriages) G1062 for his son,

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Mat 22:3 - And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding (weddings): G1062 and they would not come.

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Mat 22:4 - Again, he sent forth other servants, saying, Tell them which are bidden, Behold, I have prepared my dinner: my oxen and my fatlings are killed, and all things are ready: come unto the marriage (marriages). G1062

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Mat 22:9 - Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage (marriages). G1062

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Mat 25:10 - And while they went to buy, the bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the marriage (marriages): G1062 and the door was shut.

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Luk 14:8 - When thou art bidden of any man to a wedding (weddings), G1062 sit not down in the highest room; lest a more honourable man than thou be bidden of him;



γάμων — 1x G1062 γάμος
Showing Results For:
TR
N-GPM
Occurrences:1 time in 1 verse
Speech:Noun
Parsing:Genitive Plural Masculine

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Luk 12:36 - And ye yourselves like unto men that wait for their lord, when he will return from the wedding (weddings); G1062 that when he cometh and knocketh, they may open unto him immediately.

This along with 4 witnesses in the OT of God the Father having 2 wives ends the discussion on whether or not Polygyny is acceptable before God.

I'd love to hear more thoughts on this, expound upon this please! @frederick this is what I was talking about in the other thread. Figured I wouldn't derail it any more than I already had. I'd love to hear any of the geeky scholarship stuff on this subject. It gives me the technical scholarly information to combat untruth in those who highly respect scholarship.

Thanks all!
 
Right, I love it but I'll take the opposing argument to refine this...

Does not Luke 14:8 throw a spanner in the works? It reads most clearly as a single marriage, yet the plural word is used. Maybe here plural does not mean more than one.

I put on a pair of trousers (plural), but it's only one item of clothing.

So - is a singular wedding ever referred to using a gramatically singular word in the Greek scripture?

If every time a wedding is mentioned a plural word is used, it might just mean that wedding is plural in the same way trousers are plural - it doesn't actually mean more than one woman is getting married.
 
Read it as a plural the way it is written. I took out the added (man) and changed wedding to the plural as it's written in Greek.

Luke 14:8
When thou art bidden of any to weddings, sit not down in the highest room; lest a more honourable man than thou be bidden of him;

In modern english if I were instructing my sons:

Boys, when people invite you to weddings, don't sit in the very front where the family sit, or at the Groom's table at the reception. Sit at the back, and if you are seen as important, they will let you know that you are supposed to sit somewhere for important people.

Grammatically it makes sense to me unless I'm being a knuckledragger and not knowing my indefinite participle from a definite indescretionalary prehensile adverb. (no idea what those words mean)

If that word "man" is added as they did in the KJV, it makes sense to change the form of "weddings" to a singular "wedding" because it would be more fitting to be discussing a singular event instead of a generic "all of these kinds of events in plurality".
 
IF the translators of the KJV interjected their own biases unknowingly and supported their eisegetical understanding of monogamy only, it would be necessary to "correct" these grammatical "mistakes". To make all of scripture conform to their worldview. Hence adding the word man so you can change the subject from "any number of weddings" to this "singular idea of a wedding that a man invited you to". I don't have the grammatical language to convey what I'm trying to say any better. Maybe one of you smarter dudes can help me.
 
Actually, I can answer my own question there. When Jesus attended a wedding in Cana (John 2:1), that was a singular wedding, "γάμος".
www.blueletterbible.org

John 2 :: King James Version (KJV)

John 2 - And the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there:
www.blueletterbible.org www.blueletterbible.org
Edit: I was in the middle of typing that when @MemeFan posted, great minds think alike!
 
Like I said I don't know all the fancy grammar stuff. So I don't know how to answer your question.

γάμος — 5x G1062 γάμος
Showing Results For:
TR
N-NSM
Occurrences:5 times in 5 verses
Speech:Noun
Parsing:Nominative Singular Masculine

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Mat 22:8 - Then saith he to his servants, The wedding/marriage G1062 is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy.

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Mat 22:10 - So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding/marriage G1062 was furnished with guests.

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Jhn 2:1 - And the third day there was a wedding/marriage G1062 in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there:

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Heb 13:4 - wedding/marriage G1062 is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

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Rev 19:7 - Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the wedding/marriage G1062 of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
 
γάμον — 1x G1062 γάμος
Showing Results For:
TR
N-ASM
Occurrences:1 time in 1 verse
Speech:Noun
Parsing:Accusative Singular Masculine

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Jhn 2:2 - And both Jesus was called, and his disciples, to the marriage. G1062
 
γάμου — 3x G1062 γάμος
Showing Results For:
TR
N-GSM
Occurrences: 3 times in 3 verses
Speech: Noun
Parsing: Genitive Singular Masculine

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Mat 22:11 - And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding G1062 garment:

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Mat 22:12 - And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding G1062 garment? And he was speechless.

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Rev 19:9 - And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage G1062 supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
 
Matthew 22 is a problem, because in this chapter the same event appears to be referred to interchangeably as a plural (v2,3,4,9), and as a singular (v8,10,11,12). Verses 9 and 10 in particular:

Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage(s) (plural "γάμους").
So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding (singular "γάμος") was furnished with guests.

Are the plural and singular simply interchangeable? Does plural really always imply plural?
 
FollowingHim said:
Matthew 22 is a problem, because in this chapter the same event appears to be referred to interchangeably as a plural (v2,3,4,9), and as a singular (v8,10,11,12). Verses 9 and 10 in particular:

Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage(s) (plural "γάμους").
So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding (singular "γάμος") was furnished with guests.
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Is it possible that the plural refers to what we call "marriages" and the singular refers to the "wedding feast"?
Needs fleshing out to be sure and those questions answered but...
FollowingHim said:
Are the plural and singular simply interchangeable? Does plural really always imply plural?
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Why have plural and singular if there was no distinction? Why would Jesus Himself use different words if they meant the same thing? I find the presence of both plural and singular to be distinctive and important.

BTW I appreciate the devil's advocate or simple dissection. VERY helpful!
 
FollowingHim said:
Matthew 22 is a problem, because in this chapter the same event appears to be referred to interchangeably as a plural (v2,3,4,9), and as a singular (v8,10,11,12). Verses 9 and 10 in particular:

Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage(s) (plural "γάμους").
So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding (singular "γάμος") was furnished with guests.

Are the plural and singular simply interchangeable? Does plural really always imply plural?
Click to expand...
Or, and i'm just spitballing. .. if from the perspective of the brides, then marriages, if from the perspective of event, then singular?

I'm really curious, too... would live to see an unbiased scholar sort this out.
 
Ha! Nick, similar post, same time.
 
MemeFan said:
Singular from perspective of bride, plural from perspective of groom. Correct?
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It's an interesting hypothesis. Can you demonstrate that in the New Testament, where a singular is used the description is from the perspective of the bride, and where a plural is used the description is from the perspective of the groom?
 
FollowingHim said:
It's an interesting hypothesis. Can you demonstrate that in the New Testament, where a singular is used the description is from the perspective of the bride, and where a plural is used the description is from the perspective of the groom?
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1 Cor. 7:2 would be an example of word choice to illustrate the differences.
 
phaedrus said:
I'm having nightmarish flashbacks from my attic Greek foreign language requirement in college. Thanks guys. lol
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And I'm reading this on my phone in a jeepney stuck in a traffic jamb. 🙃 Very interesting seeing where people are going with this thread.
 
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