every ferrari belongs to somebody else before you buy it. of course i can desire something someone else owns.Correct. I’m not sure how what I wrote is in contradiction to this. If I lust for a Ferrari that is LIKE his, but NOT his, or anybody else’s, then it’s not sin.
it being presently for sale doesn't matter either.
thats even worse because now you are arguing with precisely no one.I didn’t say using them is foolish. I said relying on them is folly. Perhaps a more precise way of expressing that would be to say that ONLY relying on them is folly.
if "the implication" which is "there" is a prohibition, then yes, it can be used to justify prohibitions. obviously.Not necessarily. Often, the implications are there. They just can’t be used to justify prohibitions.
implication should override "strict interpretation" (whatever that means) when it is correctI’m speaking generally of those who use implication to override strict interpretation when questions of morality come up.

