Odes itself does not claim authorship. Wiki claims it came to be thought of as the Odes of Solomon because it was often packaged with the Psalms of Solomon. They read to me as having a distinctly Christian character. One argument is they are baptismal songs; I'd say 21 reads like one and that you're right, its picturing not Christ but the baptized convert.
So if Verse 4 members is a veiled reference to wives, then that would reflect on its presence in early Christian life and an idea that the Lord blessed his children with healthy wives. Current scholarly consensus, for what that's worth, is that they were written in Aramaic in the 1st to 3rd centuries in Syria. I mention that to say this means they were Assyrian people's, not Greek, who wrote and sang these. They were some of the earliest converts to Christianity and had a distinctly different, and historically long, culture from the Greeks.
However it may be more likely that verse 4 is referring to fruit bearing; that the baptized Christian has in turn brought others to faith. And that these new members of the body, having no affliction, is evidence either that they are pure (true Christians) or that the evangelist pictured works miracles of healing. This seems more in keeping with the context.
Or maybe this is a translation issue?
This version reflects a belief either in healing coming with conversion or an allusion to our future resurrected body. And that is a lot more fitting to the context.
So if Verse 4 members is a veiled reference to wives, then that would reflect on its presence in early Christian life and an idea that the Lord blessed his children with healthy wives. Current scholarly consensus, for what that's worth, is that they were written in Aramaic in the 1st to 3rd centuries in Syria. I mention that to say this means they were Assyrian people's, not Greek, who wrote and sang these. They were some of the earliest converts to Christianity and had a distinctly different, and historically long, culture from the Greeks.
However it may be more likely that verse 4 is referring to fruit bearing; that the baptized Christian has in turn brought others to faith. And that these new members of the body, having no affliction, is evidence either that they are pure (true Christians) or that the evangelist pictured works miracles of healing. This seems more in keeping with the context.
Or maybe this is a translation issue?
ODE 21.
A remarkable explanation of the "coats of skin" in the third chapter of Genesis.
1 My arms I lifted up to the Most High, even to the p. 131 grace of the Lord: because He had cast off my bonds from me: and my Helper had lifted me up to His grace and to His salvation:
2 And I put off darkness and clothed myself with light,
3 And my soul acquired a body free from sorrow or affliction or pains.
4 And increasingly helpful to me was the thought of the Lord, and His fellowship in incorruption:
5 And I was lifted up in His light; and I served before Him,
6 And I became near to Him, praising and confessing Him;
7 My heart ran over and was found in my mouth: and it arose upon my lips; and the exultation of the Lord increased on my face, and His praise likewise. Hallelujah.
This version reflects a belief either in healing coming with conversion or an allusion to our future resurrected body. And that is a lot more fitting to the context.