Hey this is from a forum another member on here tried to to talk about polygyny. They locked it before I could get to it so I started on here's what I wrote. http://www.gracecentered.com/christian_ ... -the-deal/
Did you know there were 40 different people practicing in the bible God never commanded against it and beither did Jesus. Here are the names of the 40
Abdon* Abijah Abraham Ahab Ahasuerus
Ashur Belshazzar Benhadad Caleb David
Eliphaz Elkanah Esau Ezra Gideon
Heman* Hosea* Ibzan* Issachar** Jacob
Jair* Jehoiachin Jehoram Jerahmeel Joash
Lamech Machir Manasseh Mered Moses
Nahor Rehoboam Saul Shaharaim Shimei*
Simeon Solomon Terah* Zedekiah Ziba*
Also just so you know
"ADULTERY" --- na`aph (pronounced: naw-af') in the Hebrew means, "WOMAN that breaketh wedlock". This applies to the Matthew 19:9 verse. Namely, note that (in Matthew 19:9) it is because the first husband CAUSED his first wife to commit adultery (by violating Exodus 21:10, in putting her away so as to "replace her") that he is therefore guilty of CAUSING her adultery. That is HOW he is guilty. He had CAUSED his first wife to "break her wedlock contract". And of course, that first wife for "breaking her wedlock contract" with her first husband, and the "second husband" for participating in that act, are both guilty too. But notice, the SECOND WIFE is not guilty of anything. And if the first husband had not put away his first wife, but instead kept her as well as marrying the second wife, he would not have CAUSED his first wife to "break her wedlock contract". Hence, he would not have been guilty of any Adultery in any way. Indeed, Adultery simply and only means "WOMAN that breaketh wedlock".
"ONE FLESH" --- "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1_Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31. A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1_Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1_Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh". For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.
1_Kings 11:3-4: Solomon multiplied wives (up to 1,000!) which was prohibited and prophesied that a king would do in Deuteronomy 17:17. But that passage in 1_Kings 11:3-4 says his father David's heart was "perfect". Indeed, as the previous verse of Deuteronomy 17:16 also prohibits a king from multiplying horses, no one would read that to think that it suggests that a king was somehow not able to have/add more than one horse! As such, there is a clear difference between multiplying and merely adding. And this can be seen as the difference between Solomon and his father David. Where Solomon had multiplied (i.e., stored-up, hoarded), David had only added his 18+ wives. (In Genesis 25:1, "Then AGAIN Abraham took a wife... Keturah". The word,"AGAIN", there translates to add --or "augment"-- in the Hebrew. And, indeed, Abraham was adding his third wife Keturah to himself.) So, Solomon's sin was multiplying wives (which turned his heart away from God) while his father David had simply added wives. Hence, adding more than one wife is biblically acceptable (just as David did), whereas multiplying wives (just as Solomon did) is what was prohibited in Deuteronomy 17:14,17.
If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish." Exodus 21:10.
Exodus 21:10 protects the first (and previous) wife(s). Note that this verse comes only 22 verses AFTER the 7th Commandment ("Thou shalt not commit adultery") in Exodus 20:14.
"If a man have two wives..." Deuteronomy 21:15a.
The passage of Deuteronomy 21:15-17 is a specific instruction in the Law Itself to any man with "two wives". If polygamy was a sin, then it would not be possible for a "man to have two wives" in the Law.
"If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated: Then it shall be, when he maketh his sons to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the son of the beloved firstborn before the son of the hated, which is indeed the firstborn: But he shall acknowledge the son of the hated for the firstborn, by giving him a double portion of all that he hath: for he is the beginning of his strength; the right of the firstborn is his." Deuteronomy 21:15-17.
"Neither shalt thou take a wife to her sister, to vex her, to uncover her nakedness, beside the other in her life time."
Leviticus 18:18.
Occasionally, some people confuse this simple verse to assert it as "proof" of some prohibition of polygamy.
Actually, however, it proves just the opposite!
This verse simply prohibits a man from marrying two sisters while both of them are alive. Moreover, the phrase, "beside the other", in that verse, rather emphatically makes it clear that this is speaking in terms of the man being married to them at the same time.
The fact that this verse is even instructed actually PROVES that polygamy is otherwise a valid marriage possibility!
After all, if polygamy was really a sin anyway, it would be completely irrelevant and unnecessary to specify a prohibition against marrying sisters anyway! That is, if it was truthfully a sin for a man to marry more than one wife anyway, then OBVIOUSLY he would not be able to marry two sisters beside each other in their lifetime!
It is additionally important to also note something about the previous verse (not listed here, Leviticus 18:17) and its relevance to this verse 18 here. Namely, the previous verse 17 prohibits a man from uncovering the nakedness of a mother and her daughter. That is also, by such implied instruction, clearly also meaning that it is a prohibition from marrying both mother and her daughter. That makes that also another proof that polygamy is Biblical by the fact of it even being instructed.
But even beyond that, whereas that previous verse 17 only spells the matter out as being "not uncovering the nakedness" of a mother and her daughter, this verse 18 here is even more explicit.
Namely, this verse 18 even more explicitly includes the word "WIFE". A man shall not take sisters TO WIFE beside each other in their lifetime. This makes it even more explicitly clear that this is talking about a man marrying more than one WIFE, just not being allowed to marry sisters while they're both alive.
Therefore, this is a very clear and simple prohibition ---but not against polygamy. Rather, the instruction is clear that men may not marry sisters beside each other while they're both alive.
Thus, this verse is actually another clear PROOF that polygamy really is Biblical!
One of the most commonly attempted arguments against polygamy makes the assertion that polygamy is supposedly not the "original plan of God for marriage". This assertion is based solely upon two sequential factors.
Jesus's reference to "at the beginning" in Verse 4 of the Matthew 19:3-9 passage, and thus,
the "Beginning" story: Adam and Eve.
That "at the beginning" phrase, which Jesus used there, of course, was only addressing divorce, not polygamy.
Moreover, there is an additional very exegetically important matter to note about all this. Namely, the very story of "the beginning" (with Adam and Eve) ---indeed, the entire book of Genesis (which starts with the first three words, "In the beginning")--- was written by Moses. And Moses was a polygamist with two wives! Certainly, the very mortal author of the story "at the beginning" would know what he wrote and whether his own polygamy was not part of "God's plan" (if it was not)!
Accordingly, it is clear that that phrase, "at the beginning", is simply not relevant to the topic of polygamy, anyway.
Nevertheless, though, that phrase is what forms the basis for the subsequent factor pertaining to Adam and Eve.
Namely, the argument asserts that, because the Scriptures only record that God seemingly only made "one Eve" for Adam, that somehow implies an "original plan of God for marriage" only for monogamy. The resulting implied speculation from that is that polygamy is to be perceived as somehow against that perceived "original plan of God for marriage".
Upon deeper investigation, however, that speculative assertion does not hold up.
If doctrine would hold people to a perceived "original plan of God", then at least two things must also be binding upon mankind. For examples,
people must only walk around in nudity, and
people must never die.
Of course, to suggest such things is an absolute absurdity.
According to the Bible, the reason that those two examples are obviously not binding as doctrine is because of Adam's sin. That sin of Adam had forever after changed (as it were) the "plan of God" as applies to us for doctrine.
The Scriptures inform us that "the wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23). From that, the Bible further explains that, "Wherefore, as by one man [[ i.e., Adam ]] sin entered the world, and death [[ entered the world ]] by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned." (Romans 5:12.)
When Adam sinned, death entered in.
Adam's sin is why we now die. And it is also why we now wear clothes rather than remaining nude, according to Genesis 3:21.
The fact that we now wear clothes and do die is the proof that we are no longer under any perceived "original plan".
So what has God planned for us instead? He gave us "the second Adam", which is Christ, that we might have life everlasting in Him (per John 3:16.).
"And so it is written,
The first man Adam was made a living soul;
the last Adam [[ which is Christ ]] was made a quickening spirit."
1 Corinthians 15:45.
The first Adam brought death by his sin. The second Adam, which is Christ, brought life by His righteousness.
"Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual,
but that which is natural;
and afterward that which is spiritual.
The first man is of the earth, earthy:
the second man is the Lord from heaven.
1 Corinthians 15:46-47.
Adam was of the flesh, while Christ is of the Spirit.
Because Romans 8:1 shows us that we are to walk in the Spirit and not according to the flesh, we are certainly NOT supposed to follow after the example of the first Adam (who was of the flesh), but after the second Adam (who is of the Spirit), which is Christ.
With this now realized that we follow after the "second Adam", Christ, we look to Christ as the example set for us in the true and current "plan of God for marriage". And this is explicitly confirmed and explained for us in Ephesians 5:22-25.
"Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it".
Ephesians 5:22-25
This is very explicit. The "plan of God for marriage" is detailed as being modeled after, not the example of the first Adam (of flesh) and his wife Eve, but after the example of the second Adam, which is Christ (of Spirit) and His Churches.
Following this model, each husband is to love his wives as selflessly, "footwashingly", and life-givingly as Christ so loves the Churches (that He laid down His life in the depth of such love). So too, each wife is to love her husband as each Church so loves the one and only Christ Jesus.
As there is only one Christ for the Churches, there is only one husband. And as there are more than only one Church loved by Christ, it would not be sinful if there be more than one wife, of course.
This is confirmed, of course, by the Parable of the Ten Virgins in Matthew 25:1-13. The Lord Jesus Christ described Himself as the polygamist Bridegroom for the "five wise virgins", which are the Churches.
So, in conclusion, what we see is that the "plan of God for marriage" is very explicitly NOT after the model of the fleshly, death-causing first Adam and his (Scripture-recorded) apparent "one" wife, Eve.
Rather, the Bible is clear that the current "plan of God for marriage" is after the model of the Spiritual, life-bringing second Adam, Christ, and His Churches.
So why is Polygyny wrong again? Not trying to except it for myself cause I already do. Just tryn to educate. Good people are being put out of churches and run out of neighborhoods for doing some thing that God does not condem! I am sure this will be useless and futile to many but maybe some people will read the Word of God instead of letting a wester Pegan culture rule over them with no truth what so ever!
Remember it was Christians who burned the witches in Salem! People just listen to a preacher then make a judgement. Matter of fact don take my word study the word of the Lord for your self!
Did you know there were 40 different people practicing in the bible God never commanded against it and beither did Jesus. Here are the names of the 40
Abdon* Abijah Abraham Ahab Ahasuerus
Ashur Belshazzar Benhadad Caleb David
Eliphaz Elkanah Esau Ezra Gideon
Heman* Hosea* Ibzan* Issachar** Jacob
Jair* Jehoiachin Jehoram Jerahmeel Joash
Lamech Machir Manasseh Mered Moses
Nahor Rehoboam Saul Shaharaim Shimei*
Simeon Solomon Terah* Zedekiah Ziba*
Also just so you know
"ADULTERY" --- na`aph (pronounced: naw-af') in the Hebrew means, "WOMAN that breaketh wedlock". This applies to the Matthew 19:9 verse. Namely, note that (in Matthew 19:9) it is because the first husband CAUSED his first wife to commit adultery (by violating Exodus 21:10, in putting her away so as to "replace her") that he is therefore guilty of CAUSING her adultery. That is HOW he is guilty. He had CAUSED his first wife to "break her wedlock contract". And of course, that first wife for "breaking her wedlock contract" with her first husband, and the "second husband" for participating in that act, are both guilty too. But notice, the SECOND WIFE is not guilty of anything. And if the first husband had not put away his first wife, but instead kept her as well as marrying the second wife, he would not have CAUSED his first wife to "break her wedlock contract". Hence, he would not have been guilty of any Adultery in any way. Indeed, Adultery simply and only means "WOMAN that breaketh wedlock".
"ONE FLESH" --- "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1_Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31. A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1_Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1_Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh". For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.
1_Kings 11:3-4: Solomon multiplied wives (up to 1,000!) which was prohibited and prophesied that a king would do in Deuteronomy 17:17. But that passage in 1_Kings 11:3-4 says his father David's heart was "perfect". Indeed, as the previous verse of Deuteronomy 17:16 also prohibits a king from multiplying horses, no one would read that to think that it suggests that a king was somehow not able to have/add more than one horse! As such, there is a clear difference between multiplying and merely adding. And this can be seen as the difference between Solomon and his father David. Where Solomon had multiplied (i.e., stored-up, hoarded), David had only added his 18+ wives. (In Genesis 25:1, "Then AGAIN Abraham took a wife... Keturah". The word,"AGAIN", there translates to add --or "augment"-- in the Hebrew. And, indeed, Abraham was adding his third wife Keturah to himself.) So, Solomon's sin was multiplying wives (which turned his heart away from God) while his father David had simply added wives. Hence, adding more than one wife is biblically acceptable (just as David did), whereas multiplying wives (just as Solomon did) is what was prohibited in Deuteronomy 17:14,17.
If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish." Exodus 21:10.
Exodus 21:10 protects the first (and previous) wife(s). Note that this verse comes only 22 verses AFTER the 7th Commandment ("Thou shalt not commit adultery") in Exodus 20:14.
"If a man have two wives..." Deuteronomy 21:15a.
The passage of Deuteronomy 21:15-17 is a specific instruction in the Law Itself to any man with "two wives". If polygamy was a sin, then it would not be possible for a "man to have two wives" in the Law.
"If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated: Then it shall be, when he maketh his sons to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the son of the beloved firstborn before the son of the hated, which is indeed the firstborn: But he shall acknowledge the son of the hated for the firstborn, by giving him a double portion of all that he hath: for he is the beginning of his strength; the right of the firstborn is his." Deuteronomy 21:15-17.
"Neither shalt thou take a wife to her sister, to vex her, to uncover her nakedness, beside the other in her life time."
Leviticus 18:18.
Occasionally, some people confuse this simple verse to assert it as "proof" of some prohibition of polygamy.
Actually, however, it proves just the opposite!
This verse simply prohibits a man from marrying two sisters while both of them are alive. Moreover, the phrase, "beside the other", in that verse, rather emphatically makes it clear that this is speaking in terms of the man being married to them at the same time.
The fact that this verse is even instructed actually PROVES that polygamy is otherwise a valid marriage possibility!
After all, if polygamy was really a sin anyway, it would be completely irrelevant and unnecessary to specify a prohibition against marrying sisters anyway! That is, if it was truthfully a sin for a man to marry more than one wife anyway, then OBVIOUSLY he would not be able to marry two sisters beside each other in their lifetime!
It is additionally important to also note something about the previous verse (not listed here, Leviticus 18:17) and its relevance to this verse 18 here. Namely, the previous verse 17 prohibits a man from uncovering the nakedness of a mother and her daughter. That is also, by such implied instruction, clearly also meaning that it is a prohibition from marrying both mother and her daughter. That makes that also another proof that polygamy is Biblical by the fact of it even being instructed.
But even beyond that, whereas that previous verse 17 only spells the matter out as being "not uncovering the nakedness" of a mother and her daughter, this verse 18 here is even more explicit.
Namely, this verse 18 even more explicitly includes the word "WIFE". A man shall not take sisters TO WIFE beside each other in their lifetime. This makes it even more explicitly clear that this is talking about a man marrying more than one WIFE, just not being allowed to marry sisters while they're both alive.
Therefore, this is a very clear and simple prohibition ---but not against polygamy. Rather, the instruction is clear that men may not marry sisters beside each other while they're both alive.
Thus, this verse is actually another clear PROOF that polygamy really is Biblical!
One of the most commonly attempted arguments against polygamy makes the assertion that polygamy is supposedly not the "original plan of God for marriage". This assertion is based solely upon two sequential factors.
Jesus's reference to "at the beginning" in Verse 4 of the Matthew 19:3-9 passage, and thus,
the "Beginning" story: Adam and Eve.
That "at the beginning" phrase, which Jesus used there, of course, was only addressing divorce, not polygamy.
Moreover, there is an additional very exegetically important matter to note about all this. Namely, the very story of "the beginning" (with Adam and Eve) ---indeed, the entire book of Genesis (which starts with the first three words, "In the beginning")--- was written by Moses. And Moses was a polygamist with two wives! Certainly, the very mortal author of the story "at the beginning" would know what he wrote and whether his own polygamy was not part of "God's plan" (if it was not)!
Accordingly, it is clear that that phrase, "at the beginning", is simply not relevant to the topic of polygamy, anyway.
Nevertheless, though, that phrase is what forms the basis for the subsequent factor pertaining to Adam and Eve.
Namely, the argument asserts that, because the Scriptures only record that God seemingly only made "one Eve" for Adam, that somehow implies an "original plan of God for marriage" only for monogamy. The resulting implied speculation from that is that polygamy is to be perceived as somehow against that perceived "original plan of God for marriage".
Upon deeper investigation, however, that speculative assertion does not hold up.
If doctrine would hold people to a perceived "original plan of God", then at least two things must also be binding upon mankind. For examples,
people must only walk around in nudity, and
people must never die.
Of course, to suggest such things is an absolute absurdity.
According to the Bible, the reason that those two examples are obviously not binding as doctrine is because of Adam's sin. That sin of Adam had forever after changed (as it were) the "plan of God" as applies to us for doctrine.
The Scriptures inform us that "the wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23). From that, the Bible further explains that, "Wherefore, as by one man [[ i.e., Adam ]] sin entered the world, and death [[ entered the world ]] by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned." (Romans 5:12.)
When Adam sinned, death entered in.
Adam's sin is why we now die. And it is also why we now wear clothes rather than remaining nude, according to Genesis 3:21.
The fact that we now wear clothes and do die is the proof that we are no longer under any perceived "original plan".
So what has God planned for us instead? He gave us "the second Adam", which is Christ, that we might have life everlasting in Him (per John 3:16.).
"And so it is written,
The first man Adam was made a living soul;
the last Adam [[ which is Christ ]] was made a quickening spirit."
1 Corinthians 15:45.
The first Adam brought death by his sin. The second Adam, which is Christ, brought life by His righteousness.
"Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual,
but that which is natural;
and afterward that which is spiritual.
The first man is of the earth, earthy:
the second man is the Lord from heaven.
1 Corinthians 15:46-47.
Adam was of the flesh, while Christ is of the Spirit.
Because Romans 8:1 shows us that we are to walk in the Spirit and not according to the flesh, we are certainly NOT supposed to follow after the example of the first Adam (who was of the flesh), but after the second Adam (who is of the Spirit), which is Christ.
With this now realized that we follow after the "second Adam", Christ, we look to Christ as the example set for us in the true and current "plan of God for marriage". And this is explicitly confirmed and explained for us in Ephesians 5:22-25.
"Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it".
Ephesians 5:22-25
This is very explicit. The "plan of God for marriage" is detailed as being modeled after, not the example of the first Adam (of flesh) and his wife Eve, but after the example of the second Adam, which is Christ (of Spirit) and His Churches.
Following this model, each husband is to love his wives as selflessly, "footwashingly", and life-givingly as Christ so loves the Churches (that He laid down His life in the depth of such love). So too, each wife is to love her husband as each Church so loves the one and only Christ Jesus.
As there is only one Christ for the Churches, there is only one husband. And as there are more than only one Church loved by Christ, it would not be sinful if there be more than one wife, of course.
This is confirmed, of course, by the Parable of the Ten Virgins in Matthew 25:1-13. The Lord Jesus Christ described Himself as the polygamist Bridegroom for the "five wise virgins", which are the Churches.
So, in conclusion, what we see is that the "plan of God for marriage" is very explicitly NOT after the model of the fleshly, death-causing first Adam and his (Scripture-recorded) apparent "one" wife, Eve.
Rather, the Bible is clear that the current "plan of God for marriage" is after the model of the Spiritual, life-bringing second Adam, Christ, and His Churches.
So why is Polygyny wrong again? Not trying to except it for myself cause I already do. Just tryn to educate. Good people are being put out of churches and run out of neighborhoods for doing some thing that God does not condem! I am sure this will be useless and futile to many but maybe some people will read the Word of God instead of letting a wester Pegan culture rule over them with no truth what so ever!
Remember it was Christians who burned the witches in Salem! People just listen to a preacher then make a judgement. Matter of fact don take my word study the word of the Lord for your self!
