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Need Advice and Help With Regards to Youtube Arguments

Kai T

Member
Male
I am in the midst of a debate/discussion regarding polygamy in one of the famous Youtube videos here by Mike Winger :
. I don't think I could link up the whole conversations here but you can look up the name :
Ethan Hocking
in the Comment section. My name is Kai Chi Theng.
If anyone could chime in to help me with my arguments, it would be great.
One of the arguments I'm struggling with is that by God allowing King David to have multiple wives, God did not necessarily permit us Christians to have multiple wives.
Another challenging one is Ethan Hocking saying that the New Testament showed us that in the spirit of the law polygamy is sinful.
He also claimed that in the Ten Virgins parable, those ten virgins were bridesmaids instead of the brides themselves.
 
Currently, Ethan Hocking said "
Kai Chi Theng I will note that you were content to leave me with an indirect answer to my question as whether you would actually want polygamy to be accepted. My initial answer to your question is that what is good is good because God is good. There is no typo there; I’m literally saying that. But since you are asking, I will be venture to be more specific. I imagine that if God truly stated that polygamy was a good thing, I would have to accept it. But I would add that I don’t understand it, because it does not appear to be consistent with the teaching of the New Testament. However, I have not found any passage of Scripture where God proclaims polygamy to be good.

You seem to find it quite difficult to accept that God allows things that are bad. And you make the mistake of assuming that because God did not specifically condemn something, it must therefore be good. To infer that because God apparently permitted King David or the patriarchs to do a certain thing, it is therefore permissible for Christians is inherently faulty.

The issue is not cherry picking verses. The issue is exegesis. You are not doing proper exegesis of the parallelisms in Genesis 1:27 or in 1 Corinthians 7:4. Exegesis is not just something you do in Greek. We are exegeting each other’s replies right now. It’s how you understand communication.

Kai Chi Theng You need to stop making the argument that Christ is somehow polygamous. You can see that to suggest so is blasphemous, when you think about it, because you are basically describing Him as though He were a bisexual. HE IS MOST DEFINITELY NOT. No one is going to be having sexual relations in the New Jerusalem. The Church is Christ’s Bride, not a harem. Furthermore, God is infinite and is therefore capable of having an infinite number of relationships with His people without diminishing or dividing the quality of His love. An ordinary human husband is not capable of achieving this because he is not infinite and, hence, my prior conclusion stands."
 
I will reply him as follows, I haven't done so because I feel that my arguments need to be better.


1. It is great that you would accept it if God said it’s good. Well, Job also complained to God saying he didn’t understand why he had to go through all the sufferings. God has never explained Himself to anyone. We just got to accept His way & will as it is. I think I have analysed New Testament Scripture and showed you how it is consistent. I’m not sure what other questions that you may have.


2. We have to differentiate what is bad and what is sinful. The description of being bad can be subjective. For example, we all think/assume suffering is bad. But does God think suffering is bad? I doubt so. All the sufferings in the Bible are means by which God completed His wills, such as the Exodus journey to the Promised Land, the enslavement of God’s people in Egypt and etc. When you said God gave victory to Israel’s enemies, that is sinful or bad. Of course, not. There is nothing in God’s law that says God can’t judge the nations or bless even non-believers. Everyone, Jews or Gentiles, can prosper in the earth created by the Lord. The Lord never went against His own laws. Therefore, in Genesis 1:31, it is said “God saw all that He had made, and behold, it was very good.” In Gen 1:28, God had blessed all mankind and this blessing still continues until today.


I don’t think I made a mistake though. Not only did God not condemn polygamy, He even said He would have given more wives to King David if David feels that it isn’t enough. So, in this case, I assume you are trying to argue that God offered sinful things(“multiple wives”) to King David and therefore by God allowing this, we cannot at all think it’s permissible to Christians? I find it hard to agree because God could and would never approved or granted sins to His people. Even for what you think that God did that caused sins, it wasn’t God who sinned. It could be His Judgement or His ways to test the hearts of that person IN all His righteousness, holiness and glory.


You might argue all those have to be looked at in its historical context. Again, as I previously stated, God never changed. Malachi 3:6 "For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed." Hebrews 13:8 "Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and today, and for ever." In order to confine the reading of the words of God only to the olden days in the Old Testament, God has to clearly state this as His intention. I believe you are not right to infer this to be only applicable to King David and other saints in the Old Testament. You should have some biblical examples or Scripture that clearly say so.



3. You claimed I’m not doing proper exegesis, but then I am not sure about your way of doing exegesis. Perhaps you could kindly share your way of doing it?


4. You assume that the meaning of the word “Church” in Ephesians 5 as described in relation to marriage is only ONE. The church refers to the group of believers in Christ, each with their own personal relationships with Christ. Collectively it is referred to as one. But in actuality it is many. It does not make sense for me to equate the church to only a single person with a single relationship because different believers have their own relationships with God. When you said “An ordinary human husband is not capable of achieving this because he is not infinite”, do you mean that if an ordinary husband can achieve undiminished and undivided quality of his love, then he can have more relationships with more wives?
 
I've seen this pattern of pro/anti polygamy discussion before, and I don't recall them ever being resolved. I would not recommend continuing this pattern of discussion with him. Instead, I would recommend a different approach; if it seems good...

Ask him directly; Do you consider polygamy to be a sin?
If he says "Yes.", then ask him to; a) show the biblical definition of sin, and b) show how polygamy fits that definition.
 
It is also worth pointing out that God created marriage but God never commanded monogamy. In Leviticus 18, God gives the law regarding relationships and His Law includes provision for more than one wife (Lev.18:17, 18). Since it is His Law that defines sin, and He doesn't restrict marriage to monogamy only, having more than one wife is not sinful. Ask the one who suggests monogamy only to identify the specific sin from God's Law. They can't! Cheers
 
I've seen this pattern of pro/anti polygamy discussion before, and I don't recall them ever being resolved. I would not recommend continuing this pattern of discussion with him. Instead, I would recommend a different approach; if it seems good...

Ask him directly; Do you consider polygamy to be a sin?
If he says "Yes.", then ask him to; a) show the biblical definition of sin, and b) show how polygamy fits that definition.

Hi @eye4them , thank you for your suggestions. I have already asked him that. Hopefully, he will get back to me a reasonable answer.
It's hard to get these people to see your point of view as they are too indoctrinated with the way the secular world looks at the Bible.
 
It is also worth pointing out that God created marriage but God never commanded monogamy. In Leviticus 18, God gives the law regarding relationships and His Law includes provision for more than one wife (Lev.18:17, 18). Since it is His Law that defines sin, and He doesn't restrict marriage to monogamy only, having more than one wife is not sinful. Ask the one who suggests monogamy only to identify the specific sin from God's Law. They can't! Cheers
Thank you for the info. =)
 
I've seen this pattern of pro/anti polygamy discussion before, and I don't recall them ever being resolved. I would not recommend continuing this pattern of discussion with him. Instead, I would recommend a different approach; if it seems good...

Ask him directly; Do you consider polygamy to be a sin?
If he says "Yes.", then ask him to; a) show the biblical definition of sin, and b) show how polygamy fits that definition.

Hi @eye4them , Ethan replied me saying:
"
Kai Chi Theng Hello. I want to make it clear that I have given thought to the points you made in your longer response and so I am willing to address them. But there are the two issues that I specifically highlighted that I feel lie at the heart of the matter. For that reason, it is those issues that need to be addressed first. To answer your questions now:


1. I consider any form of sexual deviancy to be sin. That includes a man having sexual relations with multiple woman. I really want to stress that I believe this can be demonstrated from 1 Corinthians 7, and I am prepared to go through the verses. I can also point out again that it is definitely not consistent with the fruit of the Spirit, regardless of how it might have applied to King David.


2. I define sin as anything that falls short of any of God’s precepts, ideals, principles, commands, laws (in respect to whom they apply), and expectations. Sin is not just produced by our actions but by our hearts as well. Sin always begins in the heart. And the Bible says that anything that does not come from faith is sin (see Romans 4:23). Thus, anything you do against your conscience is sinful. If a man enters a polygamous relationship while knowing that it is not an ideal way to honour God, he is therefore sinning.


Hopefully, we will be able to discuss 1 Corinthians 7 in light of Genesis 1:27.
"

It just seems that he is making up his own definition of sins. What do you think is the better way to handle such a person?

Thank you for your advice. God bless!
 
It just seems that he is making up his own definition of sins.
Not quite. He seems thoroughly convinced that 1 Corinthians 7 proves monogamy, and I assume he is primarily basing this on 1 Corinthians 7:2. So he thinks he has a scriptural reason to believe this is sin. Have you addressed this verse with him? I have not read your conversation on YouTube.

You need to go to the root of his belief, and that seems to be 1 Cor 7:2. Without showing that that does not forbid polygamy, he will remain convinced that polygamy is sinful. Everything else is peripheral argument that won't go anywhere.

If you go to our "Common Objections" resource page on the main website (direct link here), second objection is "Own husband, Own wife". This section briefly but clearly discusses 1 Cor 7:2 and how the actual Greek does not at all imply monogamy. In fact, if anything it intentionally allows for polygamy.
 
Not quite. He seems thoroughly convinced that 1 Corinthians 7 proves monogamy, and I assume he is primarily basing this on 1 Corinthians 7:2. So he thinks he has a scriptural reason to believe this is sin. Have you addressed this verse with him? I have not read your conversation on YouTube.
Hi @FollowingHim , I think I did. Though I'm not sure how well I did.
"

Kai Chi Theng
2 days ago
@Ethan Hocking Oh. Sorry for missing out your question. I thought it was a rhetorical question. My answer is as said by Jesus in John 8:7, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her.”". In other words, Jesus who is sinless could judge the adulterer or blasphemers. If we lived in the Kingdom of God, sin will deserve that kind of punishment. And, the Kingdom of God is coming soon.

I don't think we should paint all parables with a broad brush; we have to take each parable and analyse it according to the parable itself. But without any specific command or examples, I think it's quite dangerous to assume God's intention and thoughts. Any errors would lead to putting a stumbling block to brothers and sisters in Christ, which we shouldn't do. (1 Corinthians 8:9, Romans 14:1-23) That parable of the dishonest steward is in relation to the Kingdom of God. I think it shows that we should use the resources we have in this unrighteous world to gain wealth in our everlasting life. "And I say to you, make friends for yourselves by means of the wealth of unrighteousness, so that when it fails, they will receive you into the eternal dwellings."(Luke 16:9) It prescribes the conduct Christians have to do for our everlasting life in God's Kingdom. Of course, it is not reasonable to say we should steal from our employers as it breaches one of the ten commandments in Mosaic law. But the wealth of the unrighteous will also include the income you get from employment or business.

The New Testament is more like the clarifications how Christians ought to live with the power of the Holy Spirit and with the forgiveness of sins from Jesus. However, everything God says in the Old and New Testament still stands. I think the problem is many don't read the Greek meaning of the New Testament. For example, in 1 Cor 7, it says: "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own (heautou) wife, and let every woman have her own (idios) husband." The Greek words for "own" in this passage have been added in brackets. In the Greek, two completely different words have been used to describe the relationship between a man and his wife, and a woman and her husband. But because of limitations in English vocabulary, both are translated as "own". In reality, both words have very different meanings. Therefore, probably after understanding the Greek meaning of the New Testament, you might come to a different conclusion on the text.

For me, this shouldn't be personal because it is not me who matters but what God wants that matters. I know the Churches are full of misleading teachings and fallacies that put many stumbling blocks to believers. I am only a truth seeker. Thank you for spending the time to answer my questions. I am deeply grateful. =)

He replied:

"Kai Chi Theng I don’t think you really evaluated my reasoning with regard to covenant requirements and expectations. Stoning transgressors was a requirement of the Covenant. What God is going to do with such people on the Day of Judgement is besides the point. The Covenant requirement was to stone people who violated the Covenant. It was compulsory on the part of the Israelites and it was written into the Mosaic law. It is not consistent for you to say that the Torah’s marriage laws and permissions continue to stand while the punitive stipulations don’t. Such a position is a double standard.

Also, could you please show me again how you have addressed my argument about the parables? The Parable of the Ten Virgins is not purposed to inform us of God’s definition of marriage. The parable is about watching and waiting in expectation of the imminent coming of Christ. In a similar way, the Parable of the Unjust Steward has nothing to do with the Christian use of financial or any other kind of material resources. It is about the urgency of escaping wrath. Parables ultimately make theological points. The Parable of the Good Samaritan is to answer the question: Who is my neighbour? The answer is that your neighbour is whoever needs your mercy. This is important because Christ has shown mercy to us in our sinful state and we are expected to extend the same mercy to other sinners. That is why I agree with everything Mike Winger said on the issue of polygamy.

In addition, I feel the need to point out the particular verse of 1 Corinthians 7 that I was referring to: “The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does; and likewise also the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does.” (1 Corinthians 7:4 NASB) Ignoring the word ‘own’, this verse establishes basic equality. The principle that is defined here is not at all consistent with a polygamous relationship. How can a woman have authority over her husband’s body if she has to share his body with any number of other women? Can a wife ask her husband for sex while he is in the process of having sex with one of his other wives? If not, then she does not have authority over his body, and the two-way relationship is unequal and disproportionate. Also, husbands are commanded to love their wives self-sacrificially. Yet, in this case, she is the one having to sacrifice and not him.

On top of all this, by supporting polygamy, you are supporting oppression. If you know much about how polygamy works in societies where it is legal, then you know that it entitles a man to be a sexually lecherous oligarch and forces women to be sexually submissive slaves. This reality cannot be defended with examples from the Old Testament. It is inconsistent with the nature and character of Jesus Christ Himself. I was not asking a rhetorical question when I asked you: Is there some reason why you would want polygamy to be accepted?"
"

I will compile the whole conversation into an easy-to-browse document later.
 
Hi @eye4them , thank you for your suggestions. I have already asked him that. Hopefully, he will get back to me a reasonable answer.
It's hard to get these people to see your point of view as they are too indoctrinated with the way the secular world looks at the Bible.

The problem is not "with the way the secular world looks at the Bible" the monogamy only doctrine is a myth that infected the church in Rome. Paul warned Timothy about this:
1 Timothy 4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons, 2 through the insincerity of liars whose consciences are seared, 3 who forbid marriage and require abstinence from foods that God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth. 4 For everything created by God is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving, 5 for it is made holy by the word of God and prayer. 6 If you put these things before the brothers,[a] you will be a good servant of Christ Jesus, being trained in the words of the faith and of the good doctrine that you have followed. 7 Have nothing to do with irreverent, silly myths. Rather train yourself for godliness;
 
Hi @FollowingHim ,

Here you go: https://docs.google.com/document/d/1woVmKuefYYW7YwJeNHhZv2nq0NpSaAHu86mcQk_cJiU/edit?usp=sharing

This is the conversation. But I started the discussion by referring to another commentator.
Sorry but I don't have time to go through this right now, just checking in here briefly. But based on your last post, this is what his argument is coming down to:
In addition, I feel the need to point out the particular verse of 1 Corinthians 7 that I was referring to: “The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does; and likewise also the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does.” (1 Corinthians 7:4 NASB) Ignoring the word ‘own’, this verse establishes basic equality. The principle that is defined here is not at all consistent with a polygamous relationship. How can a woman have authority over her husband’s body if she has to share his body with any number of other women? Can a wife ask her husband for sex while he is in the process of having sex with one of his other wives? If not, then she does not have authority over his body, and the two-way relationship is unequal and disproportionate. Also, husbands are commanded to love their wives self-sacrificially. Yet, in this case, she is the one having to sacrifice and not him.
Does he truly believe they truly have full authority over each other's bodies? I doubt he does.

Ask him: Can a husband dictate to his wife when she has sex? Can he require her to have sex with him whenever he wants? Absolutely any time in absolutely any circumstances? Can a husband rape his wife?
Because, interpreted as strictly as he is, v4 says that there is no such thing as marital rape - the husband has complete authority to take the wife's body and use it as he will whenever he wants. And she has the right to do the same thing to him. Does he truly believe that both have this level of complete authority over each other?
Or is this "authority" tempered by the other commands in scripture - such as the command to love your wife?
Obviously, it is tempered by other commands - you cannot use this verse to justify sexual abuse, as that is unloving. The wife and husband do not have absolute authority over each other's bodies. They have sufficient authority to prevent the other from completely denying them sex, as stated in verse 5.

This means the wife can say "I need sex" and the husband can say "not right now dear, I'm busy, but be naked at 9pm".
She cannot say "No, I need you to immediately leave your important meeting with your boss and drive home right now to have sex with me immediately even if it means you get fired". She has no such authority. But she does have the authority to expect him to have sex with her soon.

This is the correct understanding of the authority given in v4, and does not get in the way of a husband's other obligations - to work, ministry, or any other wives.
Can a wife ask her husband for sex while he is in the process of having sex with one of his other wives? If not, then she does not have authority over his body
Which shows that statement is ridiculous. She also cannot ask her husband for sex when he's in the middle of an important meeting with his boss. Or, to put it better, she can ask any time, but he always has the ability to say "no" - or rather to say "later"! The authority given in v4 does NOT mean he no longer has the authority to get a job and use his body for that job!

Taking it further, if you think it is appropriate to get into patriarchy - don't if this would likely have a negative outcome:

Beyond that, if this command is subject to love, it is also subject to the commands regarding order in the home, patriarchy - the husband being the head of the wife. He is in ultimate authority in the marriage (I'm sure you can find the verses showing that). When considered in context of this wider and more fundamental principle, the "authority" that the wife has over her husband's body must be limited. Because if she had full authority over his body to tell him to do what she wanted whenever she wanted him to, then he would not be the head. She would be in charge of him, just as much as he is in charge of her. This one "proof-text" would completely overturn every other instruction on the role of husbands and wives in marriage! It cannot do that.

Therefore, the wife does not have complete authority over the husband's body. She does however have sufficient authority to ensure that (verse 5) she is not defrauded of sex entirely. The husband cannot refuse to have sex with her - she has a right to his body, and authority to require him to have sex with her. She cannot necessarily dictate when he has sex with her.

(Edited to improve clarity of argument)
 
Last edited:
@Kai T Shalom and welcome.

I added a few comments to the thread... that crew is typical mixed up Christian tradition... no Biblical foundation.
 
What do you think is the better way to handle such a person?
I agree with what FollowingHim said about getting to the root of 1Co 7.
As part of that, I think it would be good for him to have a better understanding of the biblical definition of sin. He gave his definition of sin, but that's not the point, the point is God's definition of sin, and what He has revealed in the bible.
So I would pursue that point; Ask him to quote the bible passages which help us understand what sin is, and how to identify what is a sin.
 
There are passages in the Bible we can go to where God confronts a person in sin. My favourite is Gen. 3:11 where God questions the action of the man in direct relationship to what God commanded. This is a perfect example for the confrontation of sin; identify the action in regard to what God commands.

God cannot contradict Himself; He is holy! Either David sinned with each additional wife he took, committing adultery, or he only sinned in taking the wife of Uriah - which God confronted him for through Nathan (2 Sam. 12:1-12).

Men who knew and understood the Law, clearly had no problem with a man having more than one wife. Solomon wrote the Book on marriage and sex (Song of Solomon). Jehoiada was a godly priest who saw it as quite right to take two wives for Joash (2 Chron. 24:2-3). To call those actions sinful is to do something God Himself doesn't. It is to set one's self above God, and that is high treason! I would suggest this is not just some small issue we can agree to disagree over. To set one's self up as the lawgiver in opposition to Almighty God is a very serious matter indeed (cf. James 4:12).

**steps down from soapbox**
 
In order to further clarify his positions, I have further asked him to answer 3 questions:
1. How do you know what is God’s ideal? How do you define that ?
2. How do you know what is God’s holiness ? How do you define that ?
3. When you said we are not under the law in the New Covenant, what exactly is the law then? Or do you actually think that the whole New Testament is the “new “ laws for Christians?
 
@FollowingHim , Thank you for your guidance. Looks like I need to question him on the logic of his position too. But I think he is too deep in his preconceived notion on how the verses should be read. Hopefully getting down to the root of the verses will get him to understand the truth.
 
@Kai T Shalom and welcome.

I added a few comments to the thread... that crew is typical mixed up Christian tradition... no Biblical foundation.
Thank you @PeteR ! Saw your comment. Thank you again!
I just believe we ought to speak up the truth in love and boldness. That's why I tried to lead that guy into understanding the truth. But sometimes a stubborn heart is really hard to change.

@eye4them yes, exactly. His made-up definition of sin is what I think most typical Christians have been taught in churches today. total disregarding that the apostle John tells us that "sin is the transgression of the law" (I John 3:4). In Romans 3:20, Paul instructs us that "by the law is the knowledge of sin." In Romans 7:7, he reflects that he "would not have known sin except through the law." So we must know God's law in order to identify sin properly.

@frederick Thank you for the verses. Very true indeed. Too many have been brainwashed by churches to believe in inaccurate or false teachings. This Youtuber @Mike Winger is also one of them propagating inaccurate teachings in name of Biblical thinking. If you were to look at some of his other videos, he declared a lot of inaccurate teachings(but some are accurate) which may put stumbling blocks for believers and those who are new to the faith. He made it seem like human intellectual understanding is greater than God's. A lot of them argue God's apparent contradictions as God tolerated sins because of its historical and cultural context. In the New Testament, He revealed the spirit of the law which made his toleration no longer there or made his toleration sinful.
 
Hi @FollowingHim ,
Ethan replied this:

Ethan Hocking
4 hours ago (edited)
Kai Chi Theng Hey there. I think I understand where you are coming from.
1. Jesus gives us God’s ideal: “He answered, “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ’Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.”” (Matthew 19:4 - 19:6 ESV) Jesus said “wife”, not “wives”. He said “two”, and did not give any indication of multiple concurrent marriages. As I said, there is no precedent for God treating polygamy as some kind of an expansion of His ideal. While they were never condemned for it, David, Solomon, Jacob, and Abraham all had family problems that came directly from their acts of polygamy. And we see that the Mosaic law gave regulations and prescriptions for practices that were not ideal. Jesus went on: “He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.”” (Matthew 19:8 ESV)

2. The standard of God’s holiness shines a light on our deepest motives: “Since we have these promises, beloved, let us cleanse ourselves from every defilement of body and spirit, bringing holiness to completion in the fear of God.” (2 Corinthians 7:1 ESV) When you look at the ritual and cleanliness laws in the Torah, I think you see a picture of the level of holiness that God requires in the heart — something that none of us are capable of achieving. The fruit of the Spirit is essentially a manifestation of God’s holiness. Anything that falls short of any aspect of it is unholy. I cannot begin to give an adequate definition of what God’s holiness is, given that in myself I am nowhere close to being holy. Absolute purity and moral goodness would be a start in describing Him.

3. If I’m correct, I realise that you consider sin to be a transgression of the moral law as described in the Old Testament. I absolutely agree with that. I just don’t stop there. I’m saying we need to go further. The law of Moses wasn’t meant to inform us of everything by the written letter, but to show people an example of God’s holiness so that they will see how terribly they fall short and need the Saviour. It is not less holy, just incomplete. It is Christ who fulfils the law. Anything that does not measure up to Christ’s goodness and purity is sinful. Whoever is in Christ will desire to serve and honour Him, and His shed blood covers all of our sins if we have repented and trusted in Him.

I pushed to clarify further:

Kai Chi Theng
3 hours ago
@Ethan Hocking Sorry Ethan, I still have some questions.

1. What Jesus truly said in the NT after referencing Genesis is this : “So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” I think his point is regarding divorce only. To take it further requires a conjecture of the meaning of what he meant. What you said “wife” plural was already in Genesis. Regarding the one flesh point, in 1 Cor 6:16, it is said ‘Or do you not know that he who is joined to a prostitute becomes one body with her? For, as it is written, “The two will become one flesh.”’. What do you say about this? Do Christians have to marry prostitutes if they had sexual relations with them?

I could also cite to your problems that came from monogamy, for example the fall of Adam & Eve. Some will also say God’s ideal is to live a vegetarian nudist life. Therefore, my question is still unanswered. What is God’s ideal? Can you define it?


2. Regarding point 2, the words of God are holy. So, probably you can give me a definition from the words of God describing His holiness? If we cannot establish a clear definition of the meaning of His holiness, the devil will definitely take advantage of the vagueness of this. For example, Roman Catholics need to confess their sins to the priests in order to be holy or whatever the Pope does is holy. So, God made His words clear to us so that no evil can take charge.


3. With regards to the point 3, just a few clarifications I need. God said in Deut 4: “You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you” and in 1 Tim 6:3 If anyone teaches a different doctrine and does not agree with the sound words of our Lord Jesus Christ and the teaching that accords with godliness. In Rev 21:27"and there may not at all enter into it any thing defiling and doing abomination, and a lie, but -- those written in the scroll of the life of the Lamb." In Rev 22:18-19, " `For I testify to every one hearing the words of the prophecy of this scroll, if any one may add unto these, God shall add to him the plagues that have been written in this scroll, and if any one may take away from the words of the scroll of this prophecy(refer to Rev 21, meaning the scroll of the life of the Lamb – The Bible), God shall take away his part from the scroll of the life, and out of the holy city, and the things that have been written in this scroll;'" You said you want to go further and claimed that the moral codes under Moses Law are incomplete. May I know which part of the Scriptures gave you the justification or the authority to go further than what God said? OR did God say Moses law is incomplete in terms of the moral aspects? If you said you agree but want to add some more stuff, I say you don’t fully agree – which logically speaking you don’t agree unless with some caveat.

He replied:

Highlighted reply
Ethan Hocking
1 hour ago
Kai Chi Theng (1) Jesus simply described what marriage was. There is no need to assume that there is anything else in His statement that isn’t there. If Jesus defined marriage as being between two people — a man and a woman — and made it clear that this is the only situation for them to be one flesh, then that’s all there is to say about it. If you want to say that, somewhere in this, Jesus was making room for polygamy then you will have to show me where God clearly calls polygamy a good thing. My point still stands that the Mosaic law made allowances for things that weren’t ideal, as Jesus very plainly said regarding divorce. So you cannot deny at least the same possibility regarding polygamy.

The fall was caused by the temptation to sin. The curse then had its effect on marriage and human relationships. You cannot deny the obvious connection between this and polygamy. Solomon took such an excess number of wives that his married life effectively sank everything else around it under its weight.

(2) If you think the full scope of God’s holiness can be described or explained on paper, then you need to rethink things. Just because the written law is incomplete in a certain sense, doesn’t mean it is less holy. If I give you $5 and someone else gives you $10, does this mean that the money I have given you is less real? Of course not. It just means I have given you less of it.

(3) I am not adding to God’s word. I am simply affirming that Jesus Christ fulfils and completes everything that the law was pointing to. This is taught in Scripture: “Now if the ministry of death, carved in letters on stone, came with such glory that the Israelites could not gaze at Moses’ face because of its glory, which was being brought to an end, will not the ministry of the Spirit have even more glory? For if there was glory in the ministry of condemnation, the ministry of righteousness must far exceed it in glory. Indeed, in this case, what once had glory has come to have no glory at all, because of the glory that surpasses it. For if what was being brought to an end came with glory, much more will what is permanent have glory.” (2 Corinthians 3:7 - 3:11 ESV)
 
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