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Isis + Ra + El = Israel

Anyone familiar with this origin story for the name Israel? Was watching a thing on the khazarian mafia this weekend, and this was brought up. Never noticed it before. I haven't done much study into the geography of the land of Cannan or Israel, is there any overlap between these nations geographically?

Jacob was called Israel before dwelling in Egypt, and while he dwelled in Egypt he never assimiliated with Egypt, but the Gods of Egypt and Cannan existed before Jacob I would assume.

I dont see a reason for the most hight to name his people after a combination of the Gods he kicked out and replaced with a nation, but perhaps that was the idea since he does enjoy mocking false gods.
 
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I’m having trouble following. Can you explain a little more?
 
The 'malak' (messenger/angel) - and actually said to be an "ish" [man] - that wrestled with Yakov was the first to re-name him, and Gen. 32:29 tells us why: "Israel" --
'for you have striven [sar-iat] with El and with men, and have prevailed."

There is a theory that the name Israel is actually a combination of the names of the gods of the areas the hebrews had dwelled in.
Which sounds WAAAAY too pagan, and even contrived.

It reminds me of the claim that "Je-zus" is some pagan rendering of "praise Zeus."

There's plenty to be learned from genuine study of His Word, and what it means in the original language, without contrivances.
 
Interesting theory, but I don’t buy it.

One thing that must be remembered is that worship of the One true God had been corrupted fairly early on. If there were linguistic similarities to the God of Israel, they could have been linguistic leftovers from when those societies used to worship correctly. They changed, not our Lord.
 
Interesting theory, but I don’t buy it.

One thing that must be remembered is that worship of the One true God had been corrupted fairly early on. If there were linguistic similarities to the God of Israel, they could have been linguistic leftovers from when those societies used to worship correctly. They changed, not our Lord.
Which means what?
 
Interesting theory, but I don’t buy it.

One thing that must be remembered is that worship of the One true God had been corrupted fairly early on. If there were linguistic similarities to the God of Israel, they could have been linguistic leftovers from when those societies used to worship correctly. They changed, not our Lord.

Neither do I, but it was the first I had heard of it. Obviously it works in english and phonetically to a point, but the languages of the times weren't english and even the languages of all parties involved are different.

The theory itself stems from the idea that the Khazars infiltrated and corrupted history and its institutions, hiding and corrupting the truth about humanities past. The presentor strikes me as a pantheist/deist/agnostic.

I have seen similar things about Yahweh of the bible also actually being satan in disguise. Seems to be coming out of calvinism or the catholic church. Not sure what the origins of these are.

The series is below for anyone interested in the history of the khazarians and how they are thought to tie into TPTB.


 
The original Hebrew for Israel is Yisrael. Which is an even bigger stretch. The world hates YAH. His Torah requires a death penalty for kidnappers and homosexuals - when done according to his Word. The world puts light sentencing on kidnappers, and homosexuals are regularly promoted in the private and public sector. And - polygyny - which the Father and Son both described themselves as - is worthy of prison in this fallen world - but you can sleep with hundreds of women outside of marriage (at the same time even).

The adversary has corrupted many things. “Beware of the leaven.” I’ll give you a stronger example than “Israel.” How about Christmas? Oh oh. Satan’s number in the Hebrew adds up to 359. Christmas always falls on Day 359. The Risen Messiah never told us to celebrate his birthday - nor was he even born in December. Or how about Easter? Oh oh. That word doesn’t exist in the scriptures. It’s derived from an ancient pagan diety - Ishtar. A fertility goddess - henceforth - bunnies and rabbits.

The Creator’s name is not Yahweh, either. He put his full name in the tribe his Son came from - Judah. No one contends with how Judah is pronounced, because unlike the Father’s name, they never stopped speaking it.

They pronounce it - Yahudah.

The only difference between the Father’s name and Judah’s name is the addition of the letter d (picture of a door in Hebrew). Go through the door and what do you have left? YAHUAH. Not Yahweh. Is it not written in the Scriptures?


Psalm 76:1
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I believe the word Yahweh came from the higher ups in Talmudic Judaism - who tell you their allegiance through the Saturn they wear on their foreheads.
 
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Which means what?
Which means that coming out of Eden, the descendants of Adam would have known the true God and his name/names.

As they began to corrupt worship of him, they would have still retained knowledge of those names. They may have changed Him into an image of a beast, or other paganization, but kept elements of His name in their corrupted worship.

If there are similar names attributed to pagan gods as to the true God, it’s not that scripture is using the pagan gods as inspiration for the Almighty. It’s the other way around.
 
Which means that coming out of Eden, the descendants of Adam would have known the true God and his name/names.
Scripture tells us Moses knew His Name, too, and Wrote it down. It was pagans who literally took it OUT of the Book.
If there are similar names attributed to pagan gods as to the true God, it’s not that scripture is using the pagan gods as inspiration for the Almighty. It’s the other way around.
"Elohim" (et all, variants - possessive form, etc) is an obvious example. It, as a title, was applied to pagan 'gods' as well. The same is true for "Lord" ('Baal').
 
Scripture tells us Moses knew His Name, too, and Wrote it down. It was pagans who literally took it OUT of the Book.

"Elohim" (et all, variants - possessive form, etc) is an obvious example. It, as a title, was applied to pagan 'gods' as well. The same is true for "Lord" ('Baal').
And secular anthropologists try to argue that the writers of scripture “stole” the names, or repackaged them. Again, I contend it’s the other way around.
 
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