I wanted this thread to be a step towards forming a consensus on Mark 10:11-12 regarding how the husband commits adultery and how it's identical to OT adultery. To do this, I think we can start with focusing on categorizing or labelling the most common polygamy-friendly interpretations for this issue rather than arguing them out. I also think it would be helpful to include a reference or source that shows who is a proponent of each position, which hopefully involves them having a well-developed view.
Here are my category proposals for each type of explanation on Mark 10:
Adultery is divorce
- Tom Shipley's here . And I must say I really liked Tom's view because it is well-developed, thought out, as opposed to just being something he throws out there. I say this not even agreeing with his position completely.
Adultery is non-literal
- William Luck On the Possibility of Nonsexual Adultery
- Jesus making the commandments more difficult (perhaps exaggerating some of the charges)... like in 1 John 3:15 an angry person being called a murderer, although technically no murder is involved so perhaps technically no adultery is involved in Mark 10? IshChayil has similar view here, but I'm not sure if it can withstand as much objections as Tom Shipley or Andrew's view..
Adultery is divorce+remarriage
- AgnosticBoy
- Andrew's view
- or perhaps theologian John Murray's book entitled, Divorce
Any other good sources to attach to each category? Are there any other categories of viable explanations worth considering? This should hopefully narrow down the options to only the most reasonable explanations, and then we can narrow it down further to come close to a consensus on one but that's another thread.
Here are my category proposals for each type of explanation on Mark 10:
Adultery is divorce
- Tom Shipley's here . And I must say I really liked Tom's view because it is well-developed, thought out, as opposed to just being something he throws out there. I say this not even agreeing with his position completely.
Adultery is non-literal
- William Luck On the Possibility of Nonsexual Adultery
- Jesus making the commandments more difficult (perhaps exaggerating some of the charges)... like in 1 John 3:15 an angry person being called a murderer, although technically no murder is involved so perhaps technically no adultery is involved in Mark 10? IshChayil has similar view here, but I'm not sure if it can withstand as much objections as Tom Shipley or Andrew's view..
Adultery is divorce+remarriage
- AgnosticBoy
- Andrew's view
- or perhaps theologian John Murray's book entitled, Divorce
Any other good sources to attach to each category? Are there any other categories of viable explanations worth considering? This should hopefully narrow down the options to only the most reasonable explanations, and then we can narrow it down further to come close to a consensus on one but that's another thread.
