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bill of divorcement?

irishprincess09

New Member
I have heard reference to this in the bible and was just curious if anyone has actually had to take this step in their marriage..What does it look like exactly? Does everyone need to sign it? Is there any kind of exact wording that needs to be used for it to be valid??
 
Not that I know of.

It is issued by the husband. In traditional Judaism, he can't be forced to do so. But under certain circumstances, the men of the village can employ strong persuasion. He is however free to refuse. If, however, he should die from the increasing levels of persuasion, problem solved. She's now a widow.

I guess it could say, for those with an Irish bent, "I done said 'I divorce you' and clapped. Three times. Now git along with ye." But that would seem a bit abrupt. :lol:

Personally, I can't bring myself to do it at all, no matter how worded, nor how much of the drink taken. *theatrical sigh* Perhaps that's best.

(No, I'm not trying! That was Sir BumbleBerry being seriously silly! Sillily serious?)
 
Irishprincess,

This is done in several different ways in the modern era. For those who have civilly contracted their marriages with a state license (or use the common law marriage benefit) and then they go through the courts the family court provides this when the case is adjudicated. It usually has stipulations as to who will receive what in the divorce settlement.

Outside of that realm, for those who practice Christian unions with no specified contract in place, something I would not suggest, when divorce happens the parties often just move along with a verbal divorce statement to one another. I find that to be a problem, especially here on this end when counseling. Why? It is hard to know who is telling the truth and it is hard to know who really initiated the divorce and what it was over and why it happened and who was the victim and who, if either, is innocent.

In a better arranged Christian union, or coalescent union, if the parties will write out a contract, or covenant, and come together based upon that and then should, God forbid, sin destroy the union the man should write out to the woman the settlement paper if he is releasing the woman.

In Judaism the families were under an eldership system (see Ex. 18 and 19) and then in the NT church the saints were under the authority of elders (Titus 1:5; Acts 14:23). There was no such idea of any saint who was without an elder over him or her in that system. In the OT if the man was guilty he could be forced to leave the community, excommunicated, or even stoned if in serious sin. If he refused to release a woman because he was hard hearted he could be dealt with sternly by the leaders who ruled over him. In the NT if the man was guilty he could be excommunicated for being in sin when he refused to repent of any sin. And in the NT if a union was destroyed and it could not be resolved there was always these body of elders over the saints who worked to find out why reconciliation could not be achieved. If one party refused to be reconciled and that one deserted it was that one who was considered to be acting as an unbeliever (1 Cor. 7 desertion texts). Thus, in that case the elders, who were the authority over their disciples, would provide the release settlement or the objective word that person xyz was free from the union because of abc who deserted xyz. The key to both testaments was the authority structure over the lives of the believers.

In today's system people use the courts and their churches and spiritual leaders as objective resources to prepare and guide the divorce papers process.

However, as noted above, some today do not use this biblical system of the civil or spiritual authority structures and they then unite and break bonds with little to no counsel or guidance either way and thus there are no papers or contract or covenants upon entrance or upon exit. It is better, and safer for the woman, if the union is progressively developed and then at some point a covenant made or contracted in some way or another and then if something ever ends it is good for there to be a document that spells out what caused it to end and what is, if any, the settled outcome (property to be distributed, funds to be given, etc). This document would ideally be witnessed by others or by a set of elders who oversee the lives of those people.

Dr. Allen
 
Thank you both for your replies. They helped to shed some light on the topic for me. Cecil, your post made me laugh so hard. Thank you! I really needed that this morning. I will probably start laughing at random today when i think of it again. You my friend are such a blessing. :D
Dr. Allen, thank you for taking the time to shed light on this from a historical and modern perspective. It helped me wrap my head around the topic and the marriage. That too was much needed for me.
Thanks again my friends.
 
You are welcome.
 
Dr. K.R. Allen said:
In a better arranged Christian union, or coalescent union, if the parties will write out a contract, or covenant, and come together based upon that and then should, God forbid, sin destroy the union the man should write out to the woman the settlement paper if he is releasing the woman.

Dr. Allen

A state decree of divorce that is signed by the husband is of the same force of action by the man as in what a scriptural bill of divorcement does. In my opinion a bill of divorcement is validated by scripture though a piece of paper. No matter who else has their name on the thing if the man does it and signs it is valid. So a legal divorce seems to me to be valid. This validity argument is separate and different than a moral or sin determination argument as it might be done with justification (adultery) or with a sin or hardness of the heart motive/reason. Since God does not change, the bill of divorcement is as good as it was for Moses (first part of the tenth chapter of Mark), but the man may or may not be in trouble with God for doing it.
My points here are not meant to leave the woman or the man's reasons/sins out of the picture, but to address the validity of a bill of divorcement by the husband as a separate issue.
 
My concern is this - say I am interested in a woman who is divorced (note for ylopsonlywife - this is pure theory, relax); and the woman shows me her government divorce papers, all valid. Yet unknown to me, she initiated the divorce on non-biblical grounds (assuming it is ever possible for a woman to biblically divorce her husband) and her husband never agreed to it. He denies the divorce and would like to be reconciled to her, but her heart is hardened to him. Then I marry her. I have now committed adultery, and am possibly destined for eternal flames, because I married a woman who did not have a bill of divorcement, only a government decree.

ylop who only marries recently released ex-nuns.
 
ylop,

That is why we should abandon the state-licensed marriage system. I'm still undecided as to whether or not a man with two women should maybe be legally married to one, for things like filing income tax, etc. IMHO, that is a matter of conscience for each individual - and my conscience has not yet decided!

But the scenario you outlined is a real possible nightmare. Maybe the best thing to do is to look at the divorce decree and see if the ex-husband (to use the pagan-state legal term) agreed to the divorce or not. If he contested it (maybe not an option where no-fault divorce is the law) then the divorce should not be thought of as a "get," and the lovely lady is not free to remarry.

IF the ex-husband was abusive, then I believe this applies:
1 Corinthians 7:15 NKJV (15) But if the unbeliever departs, let him depart; a brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases. But God has called us to peace.
Being abusive is, IMHO, the same as departing, because of that last clause: "But God has called us to peace."

But each case might be totally different. And is it really sin to do something in good faith, then find out later that you made a major blunder? That's why we need to be as close to our Heavenly Father as possible, and ask Him before entering into such a union.
 
Good points. I think it would be very important to look at the bill of divorcement though I doubt if many do. If Moses allowed for the bill then it must have been a given that someone would read it sooner or later as needed. Otherwise, the only other options would be to go talk to her ex-husband which doesn't seem to occur in scripture or take the ladies opinion of the failure facts, but if we were to do this then the bill of divorcement would never have been needed. God would have said "Just ask the woman". The words a sinful woman uses to describe her ex-husband are probably not much different then the words a righteous woman uses to describe her ex-husband. Asking to see the bill of divorcement is a good filter also as her reactions to this could be revealing.

1. What! are you saying I might be lying?

2. I lost it.

3. I knew there was something my ex-husband forgot to give me.

4. Which one? Or, for which husband?

5. It's copy-writed so don't try to use it again on me.

6. As I recall my ex brought it to the motel and my boy-friend did something with it.

7. We filed bankruptcy at around the same time and I gave all my bills to the attorney.

8. He will be around next week sometime. If I remember I will ask him if he has a copy as I must have lost mine.

9. Oh, he didn't give me one, but I have the one I gave him.

10. Who said we are divorced?

11. Oh, there it is just over your head on the wall. I love it entirely and don't you love the frame I found for it? My daughter says if she ever get's divorced she will put it where all the deer heads are on her living room wall at the moment.

It is interesting that a bill of divorcement was allowed as anything the man wrote would probably be just as biased as the woman's words. But it does provide for a more balanced approach and it most likely would raise as many questions as answers. I wonder if that was the reason.
 
Welltan,

You had me rolling on the floor as I read the possible reactions...

...but that is a good reason that we men need to be men of the Word and get as close to our Heavenly Father as we possibly can. He will give us discernment in those matters if we ask.
 
ylop said:
... Then I marry her. I have now committed adultery, and am possibly destined for eternal flames, because I married a woman who did not have a bill of divorcement, only a government decree.

Really, ylop my friend? Is this the new Unpardonable Sin? I thought that "There is now NO CONDEMNATION to them which are in Christ Jesus ...", especially if you commit an error in good faith.
 
Okay guys,,, here is a woman's point of view. I do believe it would be smart to make sure the divorce is righteous in God's view. Any person, male or female that has a problem with that might have something to hide.
It is important to have compassion and listen to what happened in the relationship that caused the abandonment.
Cecil, your post is right on. dd
 
To me the bill of divorcement serves one main purpose and that is to establish that the woman is divorced. It may be that a man divorced a woman where it is not necessarily a "righteous divorce" or even totally according to Scripture. But if he divorced her, then she is divorced, even if it involved being incorrect and sinful originally. There is no reason to expect that sin, which could have been upon the man or the woman or both, can now be always corrected in some way by either the man and woman after the fact. Christ can purify the sin and is glad to do so, but Christ said 'go and sin no more' rather than go back and attempt to purify a sinful relationship, even one that started out pure but ended up sinful. Sin can destroy a marriage, but there is not always a way before coming to the foot of the cross to establish blame or to repair that which sin has destroyed. Christ's forgiveness is forgiveness not a way to change who we were or make past events disappear. God has a 'sea of forgetfulness' to throw things into, and many of us have found that we must be satisfied with God being able to do this and not so easily done by ourselves. It is possible to go and sin no more, but without repentance there can be no sin removal by Christ. To me a person that seeks to lay all the blame and sin on the other person can be divorced but maybe not repentant. But not always as sin of just one person is enough to destroy a marriage. It is difficult to emulate our Christ who bore no blame and was sinless, but took our sins upon him. It is fact that when we come to the foot of the cross we must lay our sins there rather than someone else's, even if the greater load.
 
mo.nurse said:
I do believe it would be smart to make sure the divorce is righteous in God's view. Any person, male or female that has a problem with that might have something to hide.dd
I totally agree, for conscience sake.
 
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